D
Dark_Warrior
Guest
A friend of mine is currently in a debate with a Protestant. The Protestant is attacking the Perpetual Virginity of Mary, so of course they are debating over the word “brothers,” and “cousins.”
In the last response the Protestant seemed to claim something good:
"if the greek word adelphos is used for cousins/relatives in the new testament then we should see examples of it right? however we do not, why?? And if your argument was true then we would not see the use of the words (suggenis) relative or (anepsios) cousin in the N T, however we do see them many times proving your argument is nothing more than a flawed assumption based on ignorance to scripture. in the N T the word (adelphos) always means brother and cousin always means cousin. also just like in the English brother can be used in a spiritual sense (ie brothers in Christ) however Scripture is clear mark 6;3"Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, and BROTHER of James and Joses and Judas and Simon? Are not His sisters here with us?" how rome got cousins from this verse is unclear, however why they got cousins is very clear. Also your argument does not explain why luke a greek (not jew) who wrote perfect greek called them JESUS brothers even after he used the word relative 7 times in the same gospel."
Personally, I cannot advice anything, although I’m not a debater either. Are there answers for this?
Now before anyone says it, they already went over the usage of “brother” in the Old Testament, but the Protestant is claiming that since both the words for cousins and brothers are used in the New Testament then they should mean what they say, otherwise why not just continuously use “brother?”
And that Luke was far from Jewish custom and yet called Jesus’ kin “brothers” and yet uses the word “relative” in other places.
What would some of you say? Any advice?
In the last response the Protestant seemed to claim something good:
"if the greek word adelphos is used for cousins/relatives in the new testament then we should see examples of it right? however we do not, why?? And if your argument was true then we would not see the use of the words (suggenis) relative or (anepsios) cousin in the N T, however we do see them many times proving your argument is nothing more than a flawed assumption based on ignorance to scripture. in the N T the word (adelphos) always means brother and cousin always means cousin. also just like in the English brother can be used in a spiritual sense (ie brothers in Christ) however Scripture is clear mark 6;3"Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, and BROTHER of James and Joses and Judas and Simon? Are not His sisters here with us?" how rome got cousins from this verse is unclear, however why they got cousins is very clear. Also your argument does not explain why luke a greek (not jew) who wrote perfect greek called them JESUS brothers even after he used the word relative 7 times in the same gospel."
Personally, I cannot advice anything, although I’m not a debater either. Are there answers for this?
Now before anyone says it, they already went over the usage of “brother” in the Old Testament, but the Protestant is claiming that since both the words for cousins and brothers are used in the New Testament then they should mean what they say, otherwise why not just continuously use “brother?”
And that Luke was far from Jewish custom and yet called Jesus’ kin “brothers” and yet uses the word “relative” in other places.
What would some of you say? Any advice?