Authority in Catholicism and Protestantism..

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I still see it as Apples and Oranges.

Our government has three powers:

Judicial, Executive, Legislative

So if I was to solve it through your analogy it would be:

EO (Judicial), Catholic (Executive), Protestant (Legislative)

Oh I have homework! I’m starting to like your analogy, it has the stuff for a book!!!

😃
LOL

That’s about all I can say.
 
Hi Lincs,
Lincoln7;9213220 mackbrislawn, thanks for the reply,
Well it’s not Rome that’s doing the telling with sacred tradition, it’s just histroy, examining and weighing the evidence to reach a conclusion… It belongs not exculsivley to Rome, for these men had no knowledge of the modern Catholic structure. How do I know then? I do from historical study.
I don’t follow everything here. But of course history and tradition are the same thing. I’m not sure how the modern Catholic structure fits in. It would seem to me that the only reason we know of the history is because of the church.

Now, you have done historical study, but I doubt many others have. But what puzzles me is how one can do fallible study to come up with something infallible. In math the final answer is no more accurate than the accuracy of the least accurate factor in the equation.

I take it to mean by historical study you have examined all the ancient Christian writings that have survived and decided for yourself which among them is inspired? And where do you get the notion to begin with that they are inspired or infallible? After all, they make some strange claims about a man rising from the dead.
This is why I never go with the ‘you need an infallible guide’ argument, as it works just as well against the catholic who must choose Rome and then interpret what it says, just as they would scripture. As such our differences must be reconciled by studying scripture and exegeting what it says.
Well, it seems to me we all start with something infallible. That is, start with a source we consider trustworthy and authoritative. Protestants in general start with an “infallible guide” in scripture. I think we do need an infallible guide as our starting point. So I was pointing out the difference in how Protestants and Catholics begin.

As far as reconciling our differences by exegeting scripture, that’s tough. I agree with Athanasius, scripture is clear. To me it is clear, so why do you insist on twisting it? Are you unstable? I mean this as a way of pointing out the problem. A neutral third party, observing our debate over scripture, would conclude that scripture isn’t clear at all. Obviously, since there is so much disagreement over it.
I am happy to accept that scripture was received by the earliest church, but not that it requires an infallible church to decide what books belong. For no such infallible pronouncement came until Trent, it seems one was not needed for the earliest church. For my views on this, I have consistently recommended this: crossway.org/books/the-heresy-of-orthodoxy-tpb/
I’m uncomfortable with the idea that scripture was received by the earliest church. I think more like members of the early church wrote scriptures–to, for, and by Christians. In this thinking, the church didn’t receive scripture, but produced it.

Now, it is true, the later, post-apostolic church, did receive a mass of Christian writings. It had to decide what books were appropriate for reading to the congregations. Walter Bauer isn’t completely wrong–there were heretical, or non-orthodox writings and groups out there the church had to deal with and sort through. Which writings were from the infallible, inspired apostles and which were not? One criterion to ask was, does the content of this writing agree with the traditonal teachings we remember from the apostles? If not, it’s out. And so on.

Was this done infallibly? I don’t know. But if not, what reason should we have to think we have infallible scriptures?

God bless,
Mack

P.S.
More in regards to the infallibility thing, the church would kind of coast along not worrying about a topic, until some controversy arose about it that required a decision. The Arian controversy is an example. The treatment of Gentiles in the church is one. And, of course, the content of scripture. The different churches would go merrily along usng different writings in their readings until something came up that brought it into question. Until something brings it to a head and a decision MUST be made. The Gnostic controversy, Nazarenes, Ebionites. They used different scriptures. So, how was a church to know? By a decision of the universal church. Now, if this decision is not authoritative, what good is it?
 
Oh, the reason there was no infallible decision about the canon until Trent is that there was no need for one. The problem of the canon came to a head during the Reformation when the Reformers began questioning it. Trent’s decision was in response.
 
Oh, the reason there was no infallible decision about the canon until Trent is that there was no need for one. The problem of the canon came to a head during the Reformation when the Reformers began questioning it. Trent’s decision was in response.
What about the 1000 years of questioning before that?
 
Every single one? 100% or just some? But did it translate to open rebellion?
As another aside, the provincial Council of Laodicea, which met between the years 363-364 (equal authority to Hippo, Carthage and Rome - provincial councils), did not include the deuterocanonical books with the exception of Baruch (and another book called the Epistle of Jeremiah, which was later considered spurious).
 
Mackbrislawn, thanks for a well written and courteous response 🙂
I don’t follow everything here. But of course history and tradition are the same thing. I’m not sure how the modern Catholic structure fits in. It would seem to me that the only reason we know of the history is because of the church.
Now, you have done historical study, but I doubt many others have. But what puzzles me is how one can do fallible study to come up with something infallible. In math the final answer is no more accurate than the accuracy of the least accurate factor in the equation.
I take it to mean by historical study you have examined all the ancient Christian writings that have survived and decided for yourself which among them is inspired? And where do you get the notion to begin with that they are inspired or infallible? After all, they make some strange claims about a man rising from the dead.
I agree history and tradition are the same, is it the same history/tradition then that would say which books are scripture and that the pope is infallible? That’s why I take issue with it often; I see tradition/history is seen in the CC however the magisterium says, not down to study. My comment on the modern structure was simply me saying lets not project modern dogma and doctrine into the early fathers which they had no knowledge of. Men can fallibly receive scripture which is itself infallible. The fallible collection of infallible books. They could potentially make error, but did not, this does not mean the scriptures lose their authroritative state, they are as such because they are God breathed. So no I don’t decide for myself, I stand firmly with solid Christian scholarship, that the early church received these books and has handed them down to us.
Well, it seems to me we all start with something infallible. That is, start with a source we consider trustworthy and authoritative. Protestants in general start with an “infallible guide” in scripture. I think we do need an infallible guide as our starting point. So I was pointing out the difference in how Protestants and Catholics begin.
As far as reconciling our differences by exegeting scripture, that’s tough. I agree with Athanasius, scripture is clear. To me it is clear, so why do you insist on twisting it? Are you unstable? I mean this as a way of pointing out the problem. A neutral third party, observing our debate over scripture, would conclude that scripture isn’t clear at all. Obviously, since there is so much disagreement over it.
I indeed start with scripture as that guide, the words of God, as such I see them as naturally being the rule of faith. Good question, but I don’t think its solved by Rome claiming to be the guide, for one thing she rarely if ever does interpret scripture. Secondly to me, Romes voice is just another who must follow the infallible scriptures. Hence I stand by my point; faithful and consistent exegesis, drawing on the history of the church, context, intent, everything. Plus on matters essential to salvation, I still stand by it as clear.
I’m uncomfortable with the idea that scripture was received by the earliest church. I think more like members of the early church wrote scriptures–to, for, and by Christians. In this thinking, the church didn’t receive scripture, but produced it.
Now, it is true, the later, post-apostolic church, did receive a mass of Christian writings. It had to decide what books were appropriate for reading to the congregations. Walter Bauer isn’t completely wrong–there were heretical, or non-orthodox writings and groups out there the church had to deal with and sort through. Which writings were from the infallible, inspired apostles and which were not? One criterion to ask was, does the content of this writing agree with the traditonal teachings we remember from the apostles? If not, it’s out. And so on.
Producing i can accept yes, but what would this imply. I think given the authors knowledge in many cases that they were writing scripture (1), and that functioning covenentaly; the members of the earliest church would expect written terms that testified to their new covenent (2), combined with the way that the Lord viewed scripture (Matt 21:42, Matt 22:29, Mark 12:24…) these people would have known the authoritative place it would take. The plum line for all to be tested too.

It’s good too talk to someone who is aware of Bauers ideas! When did these writings begin to show however? I mean I don’t see Thomas as a first century document… I also don’t view pious Christian literature outside the NT as being considered important until after at least 90-95AD with clement and the didache. All of which is after the last book received was penned. I mean I still think that God protected and guided the church in his providence so they only accepted the right books. I think this is the historical view, also the most honouring to God.
I think there’s a risk of us forgetting Gods simple providence, I know in my reaction to the “you need the guide” argument I can swing too far the other way and make it a purely historical thing with no action of The Lord involved.
Was this done infallibly? I don’t know. But if not, what reason should we have to think we have infallible scriptures?
S to answer this, the reason is God, providentially guiding his church, fallible men, receiving infallible scripture.

Kind regards, good discussion.

Lincs

1 - The Heresy of Orthodoxy: How Contemporary Culture’s Fascination with Diversity Has Reshaped Our Understanding of Early Christianity, Andreas J. Köstenberger and Michael J. Kruger, Crossway, 2010, pg 106
2 - The Heresy of Orthodoxy: How Contemporary Culture’s Fascination with Diversity Has Reshaped Our Understanding of Early Christianity, Andreas J. Köstenberger and Michael J. Kruger, Crossway, 2010, 98-108
 
What about the 1000 years of questioning before that?
Iggy:

And what about the questioning of the Trinity by sects such as the Arians? Did the Church change its position, simply because some questioned it? Questioning in no shape or form negates an infallible decision. Those 7 books were already being used in the early church and even my NIV Study Bible confirms it. Don’t JW’s and Mormons question the validity of the Trinity and Incarnation? Does it matter?
 
Lincoln7:
So to answer this, the reason is God, providentially guiding his church, fallible men, receiving infallible scripture
.

Same difference. God guided His Church through infallibility to fallible men who produced an infallible book called the Bible.

It seems to me you simply do not understand infallibility.
 
Iggy:

And what about the questioning of the Trinity by sects such as the Arians? Did the Church change its position, simply because some questioned it? Questioning in no shape or form negates an infallible decision. Those 7 books were already being used in the early church and even my NIV Study Bible confirms it. Don’t JW’s and Mormons question the validity of the Trinity and Incarnation? Does it matter?
Yes, but my argument is not that the 7 books are not inspired (in actuality, I would consider the official canon that we should use to be the canon of the Eastern churches). I do believe they are inspired and the Lutheran Confessions state as much. However, I don’t think it’s comparable to the dispute over the Trinity. The various opinions on the canon was not an issue of dogma until Trent and theologians were free to question it up until that time. You are right of course that the DC books were quoted often, because it was the majority position that they were inspired.

All of that is simply to state that Luther questioning them was not out of the ordinary and the fuss that is made over it in “apologetics,” is more or less irrelevant.
 
Yes, but my argument is not that the 7 books are not inspired (in actuality, I would consider the official canon that we should use to be the canon of the Eastern churches). I do believe they are inspired and the Lutheran Confessions state as much. However, I don’t think it’s comparable to the dispute over the Trinity. The various opinions on the canon was not an issue of dogma until Trent and theologians were free to question it up until that time. You are right of course that the DC books were quoted often, because it was the majority position that they were inspired.

All of that is simply to state that Luther questioning them was not out of the ordinary and the fuss that is made over it in “apologetics,” is more or less irrelevant.
Iggy:

Well understood and respected. But my point is whether it is the Trinity or canon or Incarnation or whatever doctrine/dogma,there has always been people who will question it and still do today. I for one believe that Jesus either promised to guide His church through the Holy Spirit over time to reveal Truth or He was pulling our legs? Or are we left as orhpans to “second” guess every doctrine/dogma His Church has produced for the last 2,000 years?
 
Iggy:

Well understood and respected. But my point is whether it is the Trinity or canon or Incarnation or whatever doctrine/dogma,there has always been people who will question it and still do today. I for one believe that Jesus either promised to guide His church through the Holy Spirit over time to reveal Truth or He was pulling our legs? Or are we left as orhpans to “second” guess every doctrine/dogma His Church has produced for the last 2,000 years?
Right; but the fundamental difference here between issues such as the Trinity or the Hypostatic Union is that the church never defined the dogma of the canon for the entire church until the medieval ecumenical council (and that only for the Western Catholic Church).

Up until then, there were only provincial councils which determined the extent of the canon used for the liturgy within that jurisdiction. The decision of the council held no canonical authority outside of that jurisdiction. If, for example, Laodicea, which had a different canon list than Hippo or Carthage, did not abide by the decisions made there (which they didn’t, because their list of the canon only included 1 DC book), there was no penalty imposed on that diocese for not doing so.

The argument then that the Church infallibly defined the canon is true, but only if it is true that for 1500 years, there was no infallible decision made as to the extent of the canon.

Prior to that time, scholarly questioning of the extent of the canon continued unabated without any threat from the Roman See to anathematize the individual theologian or clergy for debating the canon.
 
Yes, but my argument is not that the 7 books are not inspired (in actuality, I would consider the official canon that we should use to be the canon of the Eastern churches). I do believe they are inspired and the Lutheran Confessions state as much. However, I don’t think it’s comparable to the dispute over the Trinity. The various opinions on the canon was not an issue of dogma until Trent and theologians were free to question it up until that time. You are right of course that the DC books were quoted often, because it was the majority position that they were inspired.

All of that is simply to state that Luther questioning them was not out of the ordinary and the fuss that is made over it in “apologetics,” is more or less irrelevant.
Amen to that!

Still would have liked the EO Study Bible to be ESV or NASB instead of NKJV, oh well.
 
This all hangs on what we mean by fallible and infallible… I take infallible to mean something had not even the possibility of error. So the earliest church to me could have made an error, as they were fallible, but they didn’t make this error.
I think you are correct. It seems that Protestants seem to believe that we are proclaiming that our Church and our Magisterium is impeccable.

While Catholics understand infallibility in these terms: the Church is prevented from proclaiming as what is true that which is false.

It is, indeed, a negative charism, in that it really is only a guarantee that error will not be promulgated.

And, again, you believe that MEN have been infallible in the past. I just don’t see why you can’t expand your circle of infallibility a wee bit more.
Same argument: surely every time you look at the catholic church, you are wondering whether it is actually the one true church? Cause you have no infallible way of knowing…
Kind regards
I am fallible, 'tis true. And I can be fallible in my decision to commit myself to Christ through the Catholic Church.

But I don’t see how this means that there is no such infallible entity. 🤷
 
So the early church did know what books were scripture without an infallible pronouncement? I again recommend here: crossway.org/books/the-heresy-of-orthodoxy-tpb/ I’m not debating the early church recognising the canon, just debating if there is a need for an infallible authority to do this, or if this infallible church even exits.
Some people in the early Church had doubts about certain books were sacred scripture,but Pope Damasus and later the Council of Carthage gave the list of books which were to be accepted as sacred. There must be an infallible authority to do this,otherwise Christians would have accepted inauthentic books with false teachings,and it would have been impossible to reject them with God-given authority.
I phrased that rather poorly, but did not see it until editing time had already expired… Rather I should have said: "I find it hard to see modern roman catholic extra biblical dogma as having a basis in apostolic tradition… As it develops through the ages.
The apostolic tradition was that of the Catholic Church. That is what the Church Fathers called the entity they belonged to. And Rome was the preeminent center of authority in the Church.
How do I test that Hebrews is? Well it was handed down by the Apostles to the church, it comes from amongst them during the first century, Thomas on the other hand does not…
How do we know that the Book of Thomas is not apostolic? It was rejected by the magisterium and was abandoned by Christians.
How do you know that Rome is the true church and Eastern Orthodoxy for example is not? Is there an infallible guide that can point you to the right one?
The Eastern Orthodox churches broke away from the authority of Rome. There was no church called Orthodox before the schism between the East and West. The faith of the Church was called orthodox,but the Church was called Catholic,and it was recognized that Rome had authority over the whole Church. The Eastern churches fell into heresies,but Rome did not. Rome has never denied the eternal divinity of Jesus,or the humanity of Jesus.
The Old Catholic Encyclopedia states: “The Council [Trent], as is evident, held that there are Divine traditions not contained in Holy Scripture, revelations made to the Apostles either orally by Jesus Christ or by the inspiration of the Holy Ghost and transmitted by the Apostles to the Church.”(1). I think this best fits with Trents comments on; “and seeing clearly that this truth and discipline are contained in the written books, and the unwritten traditions which, received by the Apostles…” (2). As such I think it’s clear the CC held to a partim partim view until very recently…
Indeed, Catholics do not have to chose between only one or the other, for as has been established only the magisterium can do this interpreting, the individual must look for what the church says is there… With this partim partim view being so clearly expressed until very recently, we would expect when testing it to find ample and explicit evidence in the earliest church of dogmas such as papal infallibility or the immaculate conception, if they really are extra biblical and authoritative. The fact we don’t I think is why this view is often not held to anymore…
Why should we expect ample and explicit evidence for those dogmas when the Church (especially in Rome) was being persecuted and in hiding,and when the Church was preoccupied with teaching the truth about Jesus and the gospel,and fending off heresies about Jesus? The most important teachings are those of the apostles’ creed. It was not until these teachings were well explained and established that theologians spent more time talking about less important truths.

The reason why the partim partim view is not not held to anymore is because the teachings of scripture and unwritten tradition should not be considered separate alternatives. They should be considered together as “the deposit of faith”. Scripture itself is part of Church tradition.
 
Cool well on several of these I can think of clear scriptural instructions. Scripture despite being clear on all needed for salvation can still be twisted by the unstable (2 Peter 3:16), does this mean scripture is unclear?
😃

Well, yes, it does mean the Scripture CAN be unclear.

And the existence of tens of thousands of different denominations (which is, to be frank, OBSCENE) is very, very telling about how “clear” these Scriptures are.
 
I also guess if scripture isn’t plain, Athanasius was clearly wrong then.
I am not sure to what comment of Athanasius you’re referring, but, in general, I have no problem saying that ANY individual Catholic, saint, theologian (or even a pope!) could be wrong on certain things.

So if your point is: how can Athanasius be wrong?

My answer: OF COURSE he could be wrong.
 
It stands to reason, why we would be given an infallible guide to a book and no way to know which guide is right and how to interpet the guide? Same argument I suppose.

Lincs.
Huh? Could you please clarify?

Why would we be given an Infallible Church and no way to know whether it’s the CC or the EO? Is that your question?

Well, since both of these guides have interpreted the book in the exact same way, take your pick, Lincs. You’ll then conform to the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, the 7 Sacraments, the sinlessness of Mary, Praying to saints, the Liturgy being Heaven on Earth and being a Holy Sacrifice…etc etc etc
 
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