Authority in Catholicism and Protestantism..

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I visited CARM…yes I did…I just introduced myself as RC, and already the pot was stewing…the sneers…I said if I did really say why, it would be deleted.

They had a thread regarding the Mass, and I drew on Biblical imagery and it was deleted later…this was about 45 minutes on there…and I scrolled down on some other threads about the pope god, how the Church authorities have people castrated (Holland)…they went on and on…

So not saying too much…I answered the one on castrating people in the Catholic Church, more sneers, and told this Catholic man who answered me to not stay here…that even Mr Slick’s name sounded dubious ( thought of Chick…slick chick)…I got warning because that remarked them and they were going to take action on me if I insulted them again…but never responded…must put in about 60 minutes in time…

But they really think we think the pope is God…they cannot understand we are facing Christ in our church and the Holy Father represents Him and all of us in communion with one another…we face Christ and when the Holy Father speaks infallibly, we recognize Christ.

Having one head is easier than deciding do we follow this head today and then tomorrow the one in the east?..it is juggling…

Peter was pointed out for a reason…he was the rock upon which Christ built His church, and in the same time, so many words later, Christ called him Satan because Peter was trying to get the Lord to back out from His mission…and then Peter…after being given the keys to heaven, denied Christ 3 times.

We see the man and we see Christ working in the man. It was Peter who was told to constantly forgive, who was rebuked for cutting off a man’s ear, who was the one who jumped out and walked across the water, only to fall in and have the Lord pull him out. With all that the Gospels pointing to Peter’s humanity, but Christ selecting him as the rock of His church should be something Protestants should think more deeply about.
Hi Kathleen,

I have indeed thought about Peter, I see him as possessing a primacy of honour only, not one of full and supreme power over all the church and the other apostles. I’m aware of patristic support for this view and patristic views against this view. As for the rock, again, many views in the patristics and in the modern day…

Kind regards

Lincs.
 
Are you referring to Isaiah 22?
Yes.

One minister, the Prime Minister, was given the keys to the entire household of the King.

“Then it will come about in that day,
That I will summon My servant Eliakim the son of Hilkiah,
And I will clothe him with your tunic
And tie your sash securely about him.
I will entrust him with your authority,
And he will become a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah.
“Then I will set** the key of the house of David **on his shoulder,
When he opens no one will shut,
When he shuts no one will open.
 
Lincs,

When you seem him as being given honor…for what? His dominance, his impetuosity, his lack of forgiveness, his cowardice?? Where is honor in that???

You are doing to Peter what you do to the Eucharist…seeing both in text, symbolic form rather than objective and real. Christ was very literal…

And Peter and Eucharist are the essence of the universal Church. The text is most literal, and Sacred Scripture from the first book of Genesis and throughout Scripture is preparing us for the fruit of the Tree of Life.
 
Yes.

One minister, the Prime Minister, was given the keys to the entire household of the King.

“Then it will come about in that day,
That I will summon My servant Eliakim the son of Hilkiah,
And I will clothe him with your tunic
And tie your sash securely about him.
I will entrust him with your authority,
And he will become a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah.
“Then I will set** the key of the house of David **on his shoulder,
When he opens no one will shut,
When he shuts no one will open.
I will have to look into this verse a bit more. I mean in Revalation 3:7 The Lord has the key (singular) to the house of David, so I guess I need to do a nice big study of this passage, the one from Revalation and Matt 16:19. I can’t see it as establishing the papacy however, for if it were that clear, it would be easily seen in history. Genuine question; do any of the fathers make the connection?
So you are in agreement with the Orthodox here, Lincs?
I come from a more reformed position as such I don’t have bishops. I can see thier point though. I guess this again would come down to our discussions on the nature of apostolic succession and church governance.

Kind regards 🙂

Lincs
 
Lincs,

When you seem him as being given honor…for what? His dominance, his impetuosity, his lack of forgiveness, his cowardice?? Where is honor in that???

You are doing to Peter what you do to the Eucharist…seeing both in text, symbolic form rather than objective and real. Christ was very literal…

And Peter and Eucharist are the essence of the universal Church. The text is most literal, and Sacred Scripture from the first book of Genesis and throughout Scripture is preparing us for the fruit of the Tree of Life.
The honour being the Lord would still build him up into one of the giants of the early church, one of his apostles.

I disagree here, I don’t see peter acting as superior in the text, but as one amongst others. Apostle to the Jews, as Paul was equal in his position as Apostle to the Gentiles. Indeed Peters letters seem to place Paul on an equal footing, with Paul as his equal brother in the Lord (2 Peter 3:15-16)

As for the Eucharist, I see symbolism there yes, I also affirm the presence of Christ. I just don’t see transubstantiation as the view to take…

Regards

Lincs.
 
Yes, Lincs, Peter was on equal level with the other apostles, but the Lord did precisely and literally give Peter the keys to heaven, as well as be the carnate rock upon which Christ would build His church.

You can’t have two heads…and right now, after 1,000 years, we still are dealing with two heads…Latin and Orthodox…

I invited Skeptic on as he is an Benedictine Oblate and has spent much time resourcing…in regards to the keys, and as PR pointed out, the fulfillment of Isaiah 22.

Again, the Church is the New Israel…and we have our pluses and minuses as well because the Church, as was the Chosen People were just that…people. The Church is the fulfillment of the calling of Israel, but our boundaries are now universal and transcendant…but it does not mean the end to God dictated worship, ritual, priesthood and vestments, our church authority.

By 100 AD, the episcopal model was chosen because it was most workable…and this is also what is lacking in the schism between the East and West …two heads…
as well as practically all books of Scripture and the Creed. All elements were in form, although in the form as Fr Barrows says, ‘a seed’.

The Church is not walls made of concrete or panels, but it is a living being, as a sacrament…we are the Lord’s Bride…consider the OT and so many times the Lord would sorrow over Israel’s infidelity and idolatry…this is part of life…

And in ancient times, there were the Levites who likewise had one high priest who represented all before God.

This is one of Peter’s role today…representing all of us and our universality rather than the digression into mini ethnic churches.
 
The honour being the Lord would still build him up into one of the giants of the early church, one of his apostles.

I disagree here, I don’t see peter acting as superior in the text, but as one amongst others. Apostle to the Jews, as Paul was equal in his position as Apostle to the Gentiles. Indeed Peters letters seem to place Paul on an equal footing, with Paul as his equal brother in the Lord (2 Peter 3:15-16)

As for the Eucharist, I see symbolism there yes, I also affirm the presence of Christ. I just don’t see transubstantiation as the view to take…

Regards

Lincs.
No one said Peter was “acting” superior to anyone. It was GIVEN to Him to be the Head…he did not ask for it.

I do not understand why such the fuss to accept that God can freely choose to set up His Church any fashion or structure. Problem I see with many, especially Americans is the belief of one person not being the Head. It stems from the belief of democracy. Jesus preached the Kingdom of Heaven, not the Democracy of Heaven. Jesus was born and raised in the Eastern part of the world with different ideals, beliefs, customs, and traditions. If having one person as the Head was such an issue, I am curious to know why Jesus never rebuked the Jewish kingship and the Roman Imperial structure?
 
Lincoln7:
I read up on it in the Catechism, but this pre supposes of course that the catechism clear enough that we will get it
Fair enough,
On scriptural authority, naturally i start with 2 Timothy 3:16… “All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness”
Yes scripture has authority,but NOT the only authority. Likewise, the above verse is taken way ouf-of-context far to much. More important, no where does the verse make reference to explicitness or that must everything must be said and taught from the Bible. Sorry,but that verse was not written by Paul as a means to support Sola Scriptura or that scripture is “the” final authority. My friend the first word of the verse reads: ALL…not ONLY. Yes scripture is useful and benefits us,but no where is Paul teaching scripture alone is sufficient or declaring scripture teaches explicitness.
If something is God breathed it is certainly authoritative, in that it carries the authority of Jesus Christ who has all authority.
Yes authoritative,but where does it teach explicitness or everything must said and taught from the Bible-only? And Jesus no where teaches that Scripture-alone is THE authority.
We see ample evidence in the NT itself of how scripture was treated, Paul praised the bereans for their searching of the scriptures to clarify teaching (Acts 17:11)
Which scriptures Linc? The OT. Why did Paul praise them? To holding to SS or that scripture is the only authority? A far cry from the truth. Paul praised them for reading the OT and searching and acknowledging everything he was telling about the OT messiah was about Jesus even it does not say His name.
Most importantly, look how the Lord himself viewed it; "Jesus said to them, “Have you never read in the Scriptures…?” (Matt 21:42). He goes on; "But Jesus answered them, “You are wrong, because you know neither the Scriptures nor the power of God” (Matt 22:29).
Who was he discussing with? The educated Jewish priests,scribes,etc-right? Second, making reference to scripture does not prove that Jesus held to the novelty of Scripture has the final authority. Yes he was correcting because the priest,scribes,etc were blind to acknowledge who He was and that the OT prophets foretold of his coming. No different from Actc 8:26-40 when Phillip explains to the enuch that Isaiah was referring to Jesus.
The Lord clearly expected people were capable of understanding what scripture said and held them accountable to it… John sums it up well, in his clear teaching that all his hearers needed for salvation was clealry taught in his gospel; “but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31).
Yes Linc…accountable to scripture is one thing and believing that scripture is the final authority and teaches explicitness are to entire different matters.
Can modern Catholic tradition be proven to be apostolic in origin? If as Trent and Vatican 1 say; that traditions such as papal primacy are apostolic in origin and have always been believed, can we find them in earliest church history?
More important, can the opposition present the “other” ancient tradition challenging the CC tradition? Where are the letters of the opposition going way back to the early church, if the RCC is false?
 
Understood. But that’s not my argument. My argument is that for Catholics to say that we do not know the canon is inspired unless we rely on an infallible proclamation by the church is based on a false premise. The false premise is that the canon was defined infallibly at Rome, Hippo, or Carthage, when it was not. It was not infallibly defined until Trent. Therefore, it would mean the church did not know the Scriptures were inspired until 1546, if we cannot know we have Scripture unless the church infallibly defines it.

Again, infallibility is a means of settling controversy. At the Reformation the controversy arose as to which books should be in the canon. Everybody had scripture, but the Reformers questioned certain books. These books had been questioned before, but now the matter had come to a head, and Trent affirmed universally that these books indeed should be in the canon. It does not mean that the church did not know the scriptures were inspired. It does not mean the church did not have scripture before church definitions. But before then no one knew for sure what writings were true scripture and which were not.

You are right, the canon was not defined infallibly for the universal church by the councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage. But your conclusions are wrong. These were local councils which did define the canon for the churches local to these councils. That is, which writings were to be used in these churches. Other churches, under other bishops, could still use a different set of writings in their liturgy. However these councils were influential and for all practical purposes the other churches followed the example of these councils.

The purpose of Trent was not to decide that scripture was inspired, but to answer the question which scriptures were inspired.

Of course, a council that is not “infallible” cannot permanently settle a controversy.
 
In Relation to the ‘Keys of the Kingdom of God’ mentioned in Matthew 16, I have just written a Paper titled ‘Peters Confession and the Royal Keys: Stewardship in the Davidic Jewish tradition and the foundations of the Church’ (which unfortunately i don’t have access to all the sources I used for the paper at this present moment) which covered this aspect indepth.

Current biblical scholarship has linked ‘the Keys’ to the Prophecy of Isaias 22:22 [BIBLEDRB]Isaiah 22:22[/BIBLEDRB]

and Matthew 19:19

[BIBLEDRB]Matthew 16:19[/BIBLEDRB]

The parallel is outstanding, what Christ says to Peter is almost word for word the same as the Prophecy of Isaiah.

In the Davidic kingdom, David had many servants (1 Kings 4:7 lists twelve, another parallel for another time) but one would be the ‘cheif servant’ or the ‘Prime Minister’ if you would like. The symbol of this office would be the ‘Keys to the Kingdom’, a visible sign of the authority handed by the Davidic King (who is now Christ, reigning permanently) to his ‘Chief Servant’. When Peter was given these keys, he was placed in a position of greater Authority then the other Apostles. This interpretation is not just a Catholic one, it is included in the Oxford Bible Commentary, books by Protestant scholars, my own New Testament lecturer (Dr Kathy Ehrensperger, a Swiss Methodist minister and Pauline Scholar) holds this view, as well as many other Biblical Scholars, Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant.

The other question that is raised mainly by Orthodox Scholars, is what exactly does this mean to the Successors of Peter? A Primacy of Honour, or a Primacy of Authority, in my own Paper I agreed with the Primacy of Authority due to the obvious parallel with the Prime Minister in the Davidic Kingdom, who would be chief amongst the Servants of the Court, above them in all authority, third to the Queen Mother (Orthodox and Catholic Scholars agree this is Mary, the Theotokos) and the King (universally accepted to the Christ). However the Primacy of honour tradition is not without merit, Patristic works are not unanimous in how far the authority of Rome spread, some like St Jerome, St Ignatius etc appear to hold that the Primacy of Rome is universal. While on the other hand many Greek Fathers appear to hold that while Rome has a Primacy, the Bishop of Rome is the ‘first among equals’ and doesn’t hold any higher authority then the other Patriarchs, this in practice however appears to be inconsistent, with Rome getting involved and having the final word many times in the first 10 centuries of the Church.

The argument is not on the Primacy of Peter, it’s about what form this Primacy takes, the idea that these ‘Keys’ hold no significance is not in line with Biblical Scholarship, from all parties.

I am sorry for the amount of grammatical mistakes throughout this, but I am rushing as I’m currently writing a paper for another Class, on whether the invasion of Libya was a ‘Just War’, I will however reply at even more length once I can get a hold of all the source I used for the Paper on the keys (all in all, amounting to 2 Biblical Commentaries, Greek & English texts of the Apostolic Fathers, 6 academic books, all peer-reviewed both within and outside their own denominations, 2 Journals, and transcripts from lectures and previous work by my Professors).
 
Pablope,
Quote:
Well, so what if he did?
The main point is he remained obedient to the Pope, he produced what was required of him lovingly and dutifully.
Did he preach publicly against what he was tasked to do? Did he teach or proclaim the pope wrong on the DC? Did he say the pope is wrong, I am correct and I will establish my own religion and follow me?
Pablope,

I don’t think Jerome had a knowledge of a modern papacy with respect. If a pope in his day carried the authority of a modern pope and ordered Jerome to change his views, he never did. There is an interesting few articles on beggars all on Jerome here; beggarsallreformation.blogspot.co.uk/2012/01/which-jerome-is-real-jerome.html
The links to the other two are in the article itself.

Kind regards

Lincs.
Hi, Lincs…sorry I am confused with your reply.

But first, let me ask…why would you think the pope would order Jerome to change his views? Did you know the Jerome was the secretary of Pope Damasus? He could have influenced Pope Damasus with his views…but no, the Pope included the DC in his declaration on the OT canon in AD382…so the Holy Spirit prevailed in preventing error.

The point is Jerome never taught anything contrary to what the Church taught…even if he held a contrary opinion on the DC books…Jerome’s obedience and humility.

So on to my other question…I cannot comprehend why you get hung up on Jerome’s views on the DC? Why? His views were his own…personal opinions…but that he followed the pope dutifully and lovingly…you cannot seem to grasp this…so why the hang up?

On to another question…you keep discussing about the development of a modern papacy…have you bothered to look at Calvin’s concepts of authority? Are they the same then as today practiced by Calvinists? Have remained the same or have they evolved?

Would you agree with the conclusions of this Calvinist scholar? calledtocommunion.com/2010/06/how-john-calvin-made-me-a-catholic/

Which I quote:

What most Evangelicals today don’t realize is that Calvin never endorsed private or lay interpretation of the Bible. While he rejected Rome’s claim to authority, he made striking claims for his own authority. He taught that the “Reformed” pastors were successors to the prophets and apostles, entrusted with the task of authoritative interpretation of the Scriptures. He insisted that laypeople should suspend judgment on difficult matters and “hold unity with the Church.”3

Evangelicals are used to finding assurance in their “personal relationship with Christ,” and not through membership in any Church or participation in any ritual. Calvin, however, taught that the Eucharist provides “undoubted assurance of eternal life.”5 And while Calvin stopped short of the Catholic, or even the Lutheran, understanding of the Eucharist, he still retained a doctrine of the Real Presence. He taught that the Eucharist provides a “true and substantial partaking of the body and blood of the Lord” and he rejected the notion that communicants receive “the Spirit only, omitting flesh and blood.”6.

Outside of Geneva, without the force of the state to impose one version, Calvinism itself splintered into factions. In her book Orthodoxies in Massachusetts: Rereading American Puritanism, historian Janice Knight details how the process unfolded very early in American Calvinism. 8

It is not surprising that by the eighteenth century, leading Calvinist Churchmen on both sides of the Atlantic had given up on the quest for complete unity. One new approach was to stress the subjective experience of “new birth” (itself a novel doctrine of Puritan origins) as the only necessary concern

Since the eighteenth century, Calvinism has devolved more and more into a narrow set of questions about the nature of salvation. Indeed, in most people’s minds the word Calvinism implies only the doctrine of predestination. Calvin himself has become mainly a shadowy symbol, a myth that Evangelicals call upon only to support a spurious claim to historical continuity.
 
Again, infallibility is a means of settling controversy. At the Reformation the controversy arose as to which books should be in the canon. Everybody had scripture, but the Reformers questioned certain books. These books had been questioned before, but now the matter had come to a head, and Trent affirmed universally that these books indeed should be in the canon. It does not
 
Mackbrislawn - I liked your explanation. Good logic and reasoning. At least for myself.
 
Actually, you should read this from Verse 14…14 But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have become convinced of, because you know those from whom you learned it,
Which speaks of oral teaching/instruction…so it is not Scripture alone.
I can look at them and actually see the words of God and what was believed in the earliest church. With apparent Sacred Tradition the ‘unwritten traditions’ to quote Trent session 4, can we do the same. If in 2 Thessolonians 2:15 Paul is actually advocating here he believes in papal primacy, papal infallibility, a papacy at all, purgatory, the immaculate conception etc etc… All of which is claimed by Rome as ‘Sacred Tradition’, why is it so hard to find any of it?
Or is because you continue to put blinders on?
Kind regards
 
mackbrislawn;9229579:
My conclusions are wrong, mack, because I am operating under the Catholic argument that without an infallible council deciding the canon, I cannot know what is and is not Scripture. I personally do not operate under that paradigm. My statement above is with the Catholic premise in mind. I reject the premise, so of course I believe the church knew what was and was not Scripture before the Council of Trent. The conclusions that you reach above I believe are correct.
Iggy,

Now the question is, how do you know what is and is not Scripture? You, personally?

Mack
 
IggyAntiochus;9229716:
Iggy,

Now the question is, how do you know what is and is not Scripture? You, personally?

Mack
Because it was received and accepted by the Church. Since it was God’s intention to give the Scriptures to His people, there was not going to be a situation where that was not going to happen. It is predicated on God’s infallibility.
 
mackbrislawn;9229792:
Because it was received and accepted by the Church. Since it was God’s intention to give the Scriptures to His people, there was not going to be a situation where that was not going to happen. It is predicated on God’s infallibility.
Indeed, that’s my reason too.

That’s a good way of saying it–there was not going to be a situation where that was not going to happen. God would make sure the Church infallibly chose the truly inspired writings from among the uninspired or forged ones. It took several centuries and councils but the matter was eventually settled.
 
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