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kapp19
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Is it right to say that only one of the functions of the digestive system is to digest?
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An orthodox answer will be that “why” does not belong to you. It belongs to The Author.However, what I am struggling with is why this the church’s teaching.
The devout will generally deny this.Given that the planet is now dangerously overpopulated
Because sex-just-for-fun is verboten. There have been times in the history of Catholicism where sex was viewed as fundamentally carnal - of the flesh, and not “of God”. In those periods, sex was solely for reproduction as to do it for any other reason was considered either an occasion or near-occasion for sin.What I am therefore wondering is why every sexual act has to have the potential of bringing about new life.
Honestly, because it provides a way for devout Catholics to attempt to practice a contraceptive intent without directly using banned contraceptive artifice (even as NFP makes extensive indirect use of artifice in order to increase effectiveness). And in theory, you’re only supposed to have a contraceptive intent for a limited duration.My second question is, why is “natural family planning” considered moral, given that it is essentially a method of contraception?
I’d be real careful. I got a temporary ban in the old forum for saying that very thing.However, this doesn’t really sound quite right to me. It sounds a clever argument to justify something that doesn’t quite make sense.
It’s on this basis that quite a few very traditionalist and orthodox Catholics question even the morality of NFP.The way I see it is that the couple still has what you might call a “contraceptive attitude”. They are not really “open to life”.
I honestly don’t know. I am not a gastroenterologist.Is it right to say that only one of the functions of the digestive system is to digest?
If you’re looking for an ancient and apostolic church, might I recommend Orthodoxy?kapp19:
I honestly don’t know. I am not a gastroenterologist.Is it right to say that only one of the functions of the digestive system is to digest?
@Hume Thank you for these answers. I think you offer a very cogent explanation of Catholic teaching on this subject.
Maybe the word “respect” is misleading. What is, I think, meant by this, is that there is a fine line between unitive intercourse and intercourse where pleasure becomes the main aim. This second kind can be problematic, because with it comes the risk of objectifying one’s spouse - of treating them as a means to one’s pleasure. It’s a bit different from “respect” in the usual sense.This is something I keep reading, as if couples who use contraception (or engage in activities that do not lead to pregnancy, such as oral sex) do not respect each other. Eventually, it begins to sound quite offensive.
It is a means to avoid pregnancy (an aim, or intention, or purpose) and in general there is nothing wrong with that intention.But if a couple are making sure that they only have sex on the days of the month when they can be reasonably certain that pregnancy will not ensue, is this not basically a method of contraception?
Your agreement is not “relevant” in the sense that the priest was simply quoting to you the rules for marriage in the Catholic Church. Persons who declare a firm intention to never have children can’t be married in the church. Persons of the same sex can’t be married etc.Yes, a Catholic priest did once say to me that people who don’t want to have children can’t get married. I didn’t agree with him. I know plenty of couples who got married not wanting to have children (or not able to, on account of being a same-sex couple and hence unable to conceive naturally with each other).
That’s how it sounded to me, too. On one hand, in service of her argument, she ‘knows’ that there are multiple, mutually exclusive and independent ends to sex; on the other hand, when there’s no argument to present, there’s no knowledge of bodily functions. Hmm…So you are sure that sex has multiple purposes but not eating? Sorry… that is sounding a bit like special pleading
And, in fact, @EmilyAlexandra, @OddBird has hit on a theme that St Pope John Paul II wrote about in his book “Love and Responsibility”: even when the unitive aspect of marital sex is considered, it can turn into a mere exercise of obtaining pleasure for oneself, rather than an activity which leads to the unity of the couple.What is, I think, meant by this, is that there is a fine line between unitive intercourse and intercourse where pleasure becomes the main aim. This second kind can be problematic, because with it comes the risk of objectifying one’s spouse - of treating them as a means to one’s pleasure. It’s a bit different from “respect” in the usual sense.
Catholic moral theology takes into consideration the ‘intent’ of the moral actor. If the intent were to become infertile and subsequently “take advantage” of this infertility, then ‘yes’.Thought experiment: Suppose there was a natural food a person could ingest that would make them infertile for a short period of time. Would consuming this food and then having sex be considered contraception and immoral?
Over the centuries? Divorce it from pleasure - does that mean to assert it is not pleasurable? I really don’t know what You are trying to say. Can you present the evidence that leads to your conclusion?There seems to be a concerted effort over the centuries by the Church to divorce pleasure from sex.
They certainly can coexist. What matters is the intent - does one have sex in order to satisfy one’s own need for pleasure, or does one have sex as a way to bond with one’s spouse and share in God’s creative act ? Of course, there is pleasure in both. What the Christian tradition is weary of is pleasure becoming it’s own end, not because pleasure is bad but because that often tends to objectify sexual partners, or potential sexual partners whose worth is then judged according to the self-gratification one expects from them.Surely the two can exist in equal measure.
Q1. What I am therefore wondering is why every sexual act has to have the potential of bringing about new life.
Note also:Serious motives, such as those which not rarely arise from medical, eugenic, economic and social so-called “indications,” may exempt husband and wife from the obligatory, positive debt for a long period or even for the entire period of matrimonial life. From this it follows that the observance of the natural sterile periods may be lawful, from the moral viewpoint: and it is lawful in the conditions mentioned. If, however, according to a reasonable and equitable judgment, there are no such grave reasons either personal or deriving from exterior circumstances, the will to avoid the fecundity of their union, while continuing to satisfy to the full their sensuality, can only be the result of a false appreciation of life and of motives foreign to sound ethical principles.
The reason is that marriage obliges the partners to a state of life, which even as it confers certain rights so it also imposes the accomplishment of a positive work concerning the state itself. In such a case, the general principle may be applied that a positive action may be omitted if grave motives, independent of the good will of those who are obliged to perform it, show that its performance is inopportune, or prove that it may not be claimed with equal right by the petitioner—in this case, mankind.
I know I certainly do.I would stop worrying about overpopulation. Remember, we WANT Catholics to comprise a bigger percentage of the world’s population. We need more Catholics to vote for good things like pro-life policies, not more people voting to destroy the definition of gender etc…
Q2. My second question is, why is “natural family planning” considered moral, given that it is essentially a method of contraception?
A2. It is not moral in itself. St. Pope Pius XII wrote in 1951:
Well, there goes the argument that “using NFP is never sinful”.Serious motives, such as those which not rarely arise from medical, eugenic, economic and social so-called “indications,” may exempt husband and wife from the obligatory, positive debt for a long period or even for the entire period of matrimonial life. From this it follows that the observance of the natural sterile periods may be lawful, from the moral viewpoint: and it is lawful in the conditions mentioned. If, however, according to a reasonable and equitable judgment, there are no such grave reasons either personal or deriving from exterior circumstances, the will to avoid the fecundity of their union, while continuing to satisfy to the full their sensuality, can only be the result of a false appreciation of life and of motives foreign to sound ethical principles.
I have been mulling over the question of “why were the reasons once required to be ‘grave’ or ‘serious’, and now, per the Catechism, they only have to be ‘just’?”. I could accept the idea that perhaps the Holy Spirit has led the Church to have a more lenient teaching on NFP than in decades past (NFP has only been “known” for about a hundred years, if that long), because for many people in the modern world, circumstances dictate that they have fewer children, than people in their circumstances would have had in past years. In the affluent, industrial and post-industrial West, having more than two or three children is extremely difficult. Many mothers have to work and rely upon day care for their children who are not of school age (or even those of school age, where extended afternoon care is needed — been there, done that). One-income families, once the rule, are now the exception. So I feel people’s pain — because I’ve been there — and I can understand why they would see the need to limit the number of children they have. Maybe the Church does likewise.