Baptism for the dead: 1 Cor 15:29

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Hi all,

I’m curious about the Catholic Interpretation of 1 Corinthians 15:29: " Otherwise what shall they do that are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not again at all? why are they then baptized for them?"

I saw in the Douay-Rheims Commentary online (Douay-Rheims Bible, 1 Corinthians Chapter 15) that it says : " “That are baptized for the dead”: Some think the apostle here alludes to a ceremony then in use; but others, more probably, to the prayers and penitential labours, performed by the primitive Christians for the souls of the faithful departed; or to the baptism of afflictions and sufferings undergone for sinners spiritually dead." but I’m curious as to why the Apostle Paul would use the word Baptism here if he meant something else

No, I’m not Mormon, but we get a lot of their missionaries here, which is what made me curious.

Peace & Blessings to all and a Blessed, Joyful Christmas
 
That is the sole mention and it is found nowhere in Christian teaching or practice. The Church has ruled that one’s conscience is frozen in-state so to speak, upon death. Those that were baptized for the dead were hopeful, but not well catechized. Joseph Smith, or later Mormons, expanded this into an entire theology that is found nowhere else.
 
yeah, don’t get me started on the weirdness of the LDS, especially about this. A stretch to say the very least. I was pretty sure that Catholics don’t get Baptized for the dead (I’m Orthodox) but just curious as to what the RCC said about it/how they understood the verse.

Thanks for your help!
 
Pilgrim_Wanderer said:
I’m curious about the Catholic Interpretation of 1 Corinthians 15:29: " Otherwise what shall they do that are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not again at all? why are they then baptized for them?"
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“If you think we aren’t going to be raised from the dead, then why are y’all baptising yourselves for the dead?”

Seems pretty straightforward to me, it’s a rhetorical question in support of the teaching that we will be raised up.
 
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Very little is known of it, and that is the single mention. However, it seems to be overturned, scripture alone here, by (Saint Paul) writing in Hebrews 9:27 that first comes death, then the judgment. It certainly mentions no interval in which one may repent or receive grace via the actions of others.

This entire concept strikes me as a pious innovation by a man who invented a faith out of whole cloth. America in the 1800s was a hot-bed of theological innovation. Freedom is good, but license is not.
 
Haydock Bible Commentary on 1 Corinthians, Chapter 15, here. Scroll down to Ver. 29.

On this verse, the Catholic Biblical Association’s 1942 book, A Commentary on the New Testament, says:
29. Baptism for the dead, received by substitution without sacramental value for a dead catechumen who had been baptized only in desire.
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The old Catholic Encyclopedia discusses this topic in its article on “Baptism,” near the end, in the section entitled, “Baptism of the Dead.”
 
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It’s also possible that the word baptism is not meant literally here. Jesus himself refers to his death / passion as a baptism (Luke 12:50)…St Paul may have simply meant sacrifices, offerings, prayers made on behalf of the dead… Christian terminology was far from precise during the first century.

When I enter the church, I bless myself with holy water. This carries a partial indulgence. I could offer that indulgence for the dead. If we look at the literal Greek meaning of the word “to baptize”, I am “baptizing” myself for the dead when I do this.
 
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If you read the whole letter to the people of Corinth, you will notice that they had some major problems!

St Paul went there during his second mission trip to found the parish and he stayed there for about 18 months. The parish in Corinth is about 5 years old when he writes to them to sort out some of the problems. The letter (First Corinthians) was written around the year 56AD (which is earlier than any of the Gospels).

Corinth was a multi cultural, international trading city with a very large port and one of the most important cities in ancient Greece. St John Chrysostomos writes that the cause to the Corinthian´s problems is not lack of knowledge in the faith but their lack of compassion and care of their neighbours. A lot of the faithful went back to their old ways of living and St Paul writes to warn them and to encourage them to live a faithful life.

In the year 96AD, St Clement (third pope) takes on the task to settle conflicts (even more) that were taking place in the Corinth parish. This can be read in his first letter to the Corinthians.

I hope this can help a little bit in understanding the Letters to the Corinthians.
 
Latter-day Saint here… I’ll just share a couple of ECF quotes, and a link to quotes by other scholars on the topic. Included is a quote by Jesuit scholar Scott Lewis.

Tertullian earlier wrote:

But inasmuch as some are also baptized for the dead, we will see whether there be a good reason for this. Now it is certain that they adopted this (practice) with such a presumption as made them suppose that the vicarious baptism (in question) would be beneficial to the flesh of another in anticipation of the resurrection; for unless it were a bodily resurrection , there would be no pledge secured by this process of a corporeal baptism. (Tertullian, On the Resurrection of the Flesh 48, in Ante-Nicene Fathers,3:581.) See CHURCH FATHERS: On the Resurrection of the Flesh (Tertullian)

Tertullian later changed his tune and wrote:

“To be baptized for the dead therefore means, in fact, to be baptized for the body; for, as we have shown, it is the body which becomes dead . What, then, shall they do who are baptized for the body.” (Tertullian, Against Marcion 5.10, in Ante-Nicene Fathers,3:449–50) See CHURCH FATHERS: Against Marcion, Book V (Tertullian)

Ambrosiaster wrote:

“that some people were at that time (of 1st Corinthians construction) being baptized for the dead because they were afraid that someone who was not baptized would either not rise at all or else rise merely in order to be condemned.” (Ambrosiaster, Commentary on Paul’s Epistles, Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum81.175)

Shepherd of Hermas wrote: (See The Shepherd of Hermas (Roberts-Donaldson translation))

“before a man bears the name of the Son of God he is dead; but when he receives the seal he lays aside his deadness, and obtains life. The seal, then, is the water: they descend into the water dead, and they arise alive. And to them, accordingly, was this seal preached, and they made use of it that they might enter into the kingdom of God."…"these apostles and teachers who preached the name of the Son of God, after falling asleep in the power and faith of the Son of God, preached it not only to those who were asleep, but themselves also gave them the seal of the preaching. Accordingly they descended with them into the water, and again ascended. [But these descended alive and rose up again alive; whereas they who had previously fallen asleep descended dead, but rose up again alive. ] By these, then, were they quickened and made to know the name of the Son of God…. For they slept in righteousness and in great purity, but only they had not this seal.” (Shepherd of Hermas, Chapter 16, Roberts-Donaldson translation)


I hope this helps…
 
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