So you are demonstrating the Catholic approach to meaningful dialogue by calling me a troll and posting an insulting image? :ehh:
Rather than, for example,
engaging in any of the meaningful points that I made to you, for the
second time, in that same article, and that I now present for the third time:
How can you claim that marriage is ‘for’ the State to promote conception, when it
does no such thing? Marriage is neither necessary for nor even
helpful for conception. Indeed, marriage can only
prevent conception, as when someone who is both willing and able to have children ends up married for life to someone who is either unwilling or unable.
Further, if promoting conception were the purpose for marriage, why would the State give marriage licenses to those who had not conceived, nor made any commitment to do so? The obvious thing would be to grant the rights only to those who had already conceived.
Finally, if promoting conception
were the purpose for marriage, same sex couples who
had conceived would be more worthy of marriage licenses than childless heterosexual couples. The State, after all, doesn’t care about the child’s genes, as long as they are being adequately cared for. So a couple who have produced kids (
and are raising kids, which is where marriage
does help) should have the same marriage rights whatever their gender.
Oops, missed one. So really and truly Finally this time, can you explain why the
definition of marriage must exclude all forms of marriage that you oppose, whereas the same is not true for the
definition of ‘Sex’. Or to look at it another way, why does admitting that polygamous marriages were in fact marriages imply support for polygamy?