T
Thorolfr
Guest
You’re reading way more into these verses than can possibly be known from what they say. Acts implies that the field was bought by the Chief Priest after Judas had already hung himself. It is pure conjecture to add everything about the Chief Priest possibly buying the field for Judas and then possibly deeding it to him, etc. If you add enough conjecture, almost any seeming contradictions can be reconciled.Once again, to learn the truth, one has to resort to the original language.
The verse in Matthew uses the word ἀγοράζω (transliterated agorazō) which is translated consistently as “buy” or “purchase” in twenty-seven places in the NT. Three more instances in Revelation are translated “redeem” or “ransom” which certainly carries the same general idea.
A further examination of the verse in Acts shows that the Greek word used is κτάομαι (transliterated ktaomai). The other places it occurs in scripture are translated in as “acquire,” “get” “gain,” “obtain,” “bought,” and even “control”. It seems quite likely that the word could be used for something acquired through a transaction in which you used your own money, but it quite often used for other ways of coming into possession or control.
It seems quite probable that the two verses can be be reconciled. The Chief Priests made the actual purchase, but with Judas’ money, so Judas used that land to hang himself. Whether the Priests deeded it to him as part of the purchase or he was only squatting on it out of some morbid interest in seeing what happened to his money, or some other explanation is not stated. There really is no conflict between the two passages.
If I gave you the money to go buy some sandwiches, some people might say you bought some sandwiches, and some might say I bought them. Although it might be a little confusing, both would be right.
Almost always, any perceived inconsistencies in the Bible can be cleared up by looking at the original language and the wording used.