Bertrandd Russell's China Teapot

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**Bagheera

Typical cop-out. There is no answer because an answer WOULD BE a verbal communication, and God never speaks to anyone.**

He speaks to everyone. He even speaks to you in this Forum. And you are listening! 👍
 
Rusell is absolutely correct. Nobody can prove that there is not between Earth and Mars a china teapot, hence the rational position is lacking affirmative evidence that there is no teapot and rationally one should act as if there were no teapot. Nobody can prove that there is not God, hence the rational position is lacking affirmative evidence that there is no God and rationally one should act as if there were no God. Nobody can prove that there is not a valid moral argument against murder, hence the rational position is lacking affirmative evidence that there is no valid moral argument against murder and rationally one should act as if there were no valid moral argument against murder.

Luckily for my neighbors, i decided long ago to act irrationally as if a valid moral argument against murder exists. Hence, i have no qualms about acting irrationally in regard to other things, which also includes to irrationally prefer some irrational beliefs over others.
what? could you please explain this in better or in simple terms/words.

God bless
 
what? could you please explain this in better or in simple terms/words.
Russell’s argument is that God’s existance is something against which evidence is impossible and for which evidence is absent. From this he concludes that one can assume He is unlikely to truly exist.

But he proposes through his teapot example this as a general principle, if something might exist,but evidence against is impossible and evidence in favor scarce, then one assumes it doesnt exist.

I just point out that applying this principle truly in general leads to the result of assuming murder not to be wrong.
For murder to be wrong, individual human existance must be valuable. That humans are valuable might be true. One can certainly can never prove that humans are absolutely worthless. Yet, there is scarce evidence that humans are valuable, only humans claim that this is true, which is certainly not sufficient evidence. So just like with God’s existance or with the teapot, if we apply Russel’s reasoning to the issue of murder, the conclusion is that it has to be assumed that murder is not wrong because there is insufficient evidence in favor of humans being valuable.

Before you suggest that that is completely wrong, if it is wrong, it is wrong due to an error in Russel’s reasoning, as i just applied his reasoining.

I also think the conclusion is wrong. But i never found any atheist willing to apply their profound critical thinking to the question of whether they should not discard all what our society considers to be good for the same reason they discard god, all that human rights stuff is in principle mystic hogwash without any basis in empirical reality. Yet, they discard God, because He somewhat lacks empirical basis, but claim at the same time to embrace values that lack empirical basis as well.
 
Russell’s argument is that God’s existance is something against which evidence is impossible and for which evidence is absent. From this he concludes that one can assume He is unlikely to truly exist.

But he proposes through his teapot example this as a general principle, if something might exist,but evidence against is impossible and evidence in favor scarce, then one assumes it doesnt exist.

I just point out that applying this principle truly in general leads to the result of assuming murder not to be wrong.
For murder to be wrong, individual human existance must be valuable. That humans are valuable might be true. One can certainly can never prove that humans are absolutely worthless. Yet, there is scarce evidence that humans are valuable, only humans claim that this is true, which is certainly not sufficient evidence. So just like with God’s existance or with the teapot, if we apply Russel’s reasoning to the issue of murder, the conclusion is that it has to be assumed that murder is not wrong because there is insufficient evidence in favor of humans being valuable.

Before you suggest that that is completely wrong, if it is wrong, it is wrong due to an error in Russel’s reasoning, as i just applied his reasoning.

I also think the conclusion is wrong. But i never found any atheist willing to apply their profound critical thinking to the question of whether they should not discard all what our society considers to be good for the same reason they discard god, all that human rights stuff is in principle mystic hogwash without any basis in empirical reality. Yet, they discard God, because He somewhat lacks empirical basis, but claim at the same time to embrace values that lack empirical basis as well.
Your argument is incorrect. The teapot argument is about what “IS”, or what “exists”, while the “murder” argument is about the “OUGHT”, or “should be”. One ought to refrain from “murdering” not because there is a “proof” against it, or because a certain society considers it wrong, rather because of the (fully secular) concept of reciprocity.

Moreover, there is no empirical basis for the true propositions in the abstract sciences, and yet atheists are perfectly willing to accept them. One should not confuse propositions about the external reality and abstractions about that reality.
 
Your argument is incorrect. The teapot argument is about what “IS”, or what “exists”, while the “murder” argument is about the “OUGHT”, or “should be”.
Hence, i did say “human existance must be valuable.” for murder to be wrong. Either human existance IS valuable or it IS NOT valuable. Thats not an OUGHT question. The OUGHT question only arises after it has been determined whether individual human existance is valuable or not. Which is pretty doubtful, as we will all be dust in just 300 years and as mankind will be gone in 4 billion years or, if turning out to be realy clever, in just 100 billion years at latest.
One ought to refrain from “murdering” not because there is a “proof” against it, or because a certain society considers it wrong, rather because of the (fully secular) concept of reciprocity.
So one should believe in something immaterial to be a binding concept for our material world because someone else suggested so?

edit: to further the point:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Humanist_and_Ethical_Union#Strategic_aims
“To defend human rights and the rights of Humanists.”
They assume the moment that certain arrangement mostly composing of C, H and O and moelcules thereof have for the time that arrangement exhibits certain chemical reactions properties called “rights”. So they assume the existance of some invisible and unmeasurable properties. Pretty irrational.
 
Hence, i did say “human existance must be valuable.” for murder to be wrong. Either human existance IS valuable or it IS NOT valuable.
“Value” is a concept, not an ontological object. Reality can be subdivided into two parts, one would be the ontologically existing objects, the other is the realm of concepts, which do not have ontological existence.

On top of that “value” is a subjective concept, so it is definitely NOT subject to empirical validation. Also, there is no such thing as an “abstract” value. For someone who is freezing, a library composed of the writings of the greatest minds, the collection of books has only one value: “burn them, and survive the devastating cold”. In this context the writings of great thinkers have no more value than the worst kind of trashy pulp fiction. For a cannibal the missionary only has “nutritional value”.
So one should believe in something immaterial to be a binding concept for our material world because someone else suggested so?
Not “because…”. Whether it was suggested or not, our life is valuable to us. Starting from that point and “projecting” onto others we can enhance our well-being by cooperating versus antagonizing. Very simple concepts.
“To defend human rights and the rights of Humanists.”
They assume the moment that certain arrangement mostly composing of C, H and O and moelcules thereof have for the time that arrangement exhibits certain chemical reactions properties called “rights”.
“Rights” are social constructs. “Love” is an emotion and actions expressing it. “Beauty” is a concept, and a subjective one at that. “Justice” is an expression of interpersonal relationships. So is “freedom” and “liberty”. None of these exist as ontological objects. There are no ontologically existing human “rights”. A “right” is something that is granted by someone in power (generally a government) to other people and it expresses that the people can perform certain actions (or refrain from doing certain actions) without fear of repercussions. Yes, I am aware of the Declaration of Human rights, and the famous “life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness”, but these are pretty and poetic “pies in the sky” without any significance. If a “right” is not enforced, it is “wishful thinking or baloney”. But it is a nice concept, and it would be neat to have it in reality.
So they assume the existance of some invisible and unmeasurable properties. Pretty irrational.
Why would it be? Ontologically existing objects have many “immaterial” aspects to them. There are “activities”, “properties / attributes” and “relationships”, none of which exist ontologically, but none of which can exist without the ontological foundation of actual objects. Noting “irrational” about it.

What is irrational is to assume that different aspects of reality should be subject to same methods to validate them. And no self-respecting and scientifically minded atheist will commit this particular fallacy. It is only suggested by a handful ignoramuses, some of whom are theists.
 
“Value” is a concept, not an ontological object. Reality can be subdivided into two parts, one would be the ontologically existing objects, the other is the realm of concepts, which do not have ontological existence.
Since we discuss “Value”, there exist at least soem chemical-electrical process in our brains connected to “Value”, therefore it is a bit strange to claim it does not have ontological existance.

Furthermore, if we assume there is nothing but the material world, then the arisal of the “Value” we discuss would be something one could predict with natural laws (though only up to the presicion allowed by those dicey laws).
On top of that “value” is a subjective concept, so it is definitely NOT subject to empirical validation.
Ok, therefore there can be no empirical argument vs murder. Its just a subjective matter.
For a cannibal the missionary only has “nutritional value”.
And therefore, if the missionary claims that the cannibal should not eat him, the cannibal can just refer to Russell’s thinking, that for something so remotely strange as food having the right not to be eaten, which the cannibal furthermore cannot disvprove, the burden of proof naturally rests with teh missionary and failing to provide any, the cannibal can rest assured that likely he is correct and the missionary is toast.
Not “because…”. Whether it was suggested or not, our life is valuable to us.
Thats an unsubstianted claim, especially as there are 7 billion humans around potentially with varying opions about their own life’s value, especially the roughly 1 million commiting suicide each year indicate some sort of variance.
Why would it be? Ontologically existing objects have many “immaterial” aspects to them. There are “activities”, “properties / attributes” and “relationships”, none of which exist ontologically, but none of which can exist without the ontological foundation of actual objects. Noting “irrational” about it.
Irrational is to act as if they are true.
What is irrational is to assume that different aspects of reality should be subject to same methods to validate them. And no self-respecting and scientifically minded atheist will commit this particular fallacy. It is only suggested by a handful ignoramuses, some of whom are theists.
If this is a material world, even what i wrote in this post could a short enough time () before i write the words be predicted with an accuracy() better than pure chance.

So in a purely material world, everything is in principle subject to the same method of validation, because only things and thoughts inside the boundaries of natural laws exist or would exist. If we are (maybe yet) too stupid, thats our problem, and not a problem of any method.

(*Both dependent upon measurement precision, calculating power and what amount of “randomness” the actual natural laws comprise)
 
Since we discuss “Value”, there exist at least soem chemical-electrical process in our brains connected to “Value”, therefore it is a bit strange to claim it does not have ontological existance.
Sure looks like that you don’t understand the concept of “concept”. You confuse entities with their representations.
So in a purely material world, everything is in principle subject to the same method of validation, because only things and thoughts inside the boundaries of natural laws exist or would exist.
Only a hopelessly uneducated person would think that the Pythagoras theorem can be proven “empirically”.
 
Only a hopelessly uneducated person would think that the Pythagoras theorem can be proven “empirically”.
Take the “world formula”, starting conditions of the universe, a rather big computer, calculate and among the immense amount of predictions will be that some intelligent life form develops and that some members of that species will prove Pythargoras theorem and THEIR THOUGHT PROCESS TO DO SO and hence also the proof of the theorem.

And since it is predictable by purely computing the “world formula” it is also experimentally accessible, just create a few billion universes and check out what everbody is thinking and you will get the proof even if initially not aware about it.

Learn to accept, that if matter is all there is, then we are either complex automatons or complex automatons with random number generators and therefore all our philosophies, free will illusions, morals, religions, love and all other thought processes are all just potential solutions of the “world formula”/the laws of the universe, they are not separate but just a part of it. And anything subject to the laws of the universe, is in principle empirically accessible.
 
Only a hopelessly uneducated person would think that the Pythagoras theorem can be proven “empirically”.
Que??? You measure the two sides on the right angle, calculate, and then check whether the calculation is the same as the hypotenuse. What’cha talking about?
 
Que??? You measure the two sides on the right angle, calculate, and then check whether the calculation is the same as the hypotenuse. What’cha talking about?
That is “verification” not “proof”. The theorem talks about ALL triangles with a right angle. There is the Goldbach conjecture, which says that **ALL **even numbers can be composed as the sum of two prime numbers. This conjecture has been **verified **for several million even numbers, but that does not constitute a “proof”. None of these can be proven “empirically”. Empiricism is a tool for the external reality, not for the abstract or axiomatically based sciences.
 
Empiricism is a tool for the external reality, not for the abstract or axiomatically based sciences.
That sciences only happen in our brain, which is part of the external reality and can in principal be studied via empiricism. How can you distinguish in a purely material universe between external reality (=outside human mind?) and something else(=inside reality=inside human mind?)?

Its all just various particles interacting according to natural laws (at least thats what one has to assume in a scientifically approach).

Or are you actually suggesting that human mind is something special beyond the boundaries of this universe?
 
Russell’s argument is that God’s existance is something against which evidence is impossible and for which evidence is absent. From this he concludes that one can assume He is unlikely to truly exist.

But he proposes through his teapot example this as a general principle, if something might exist,but evidence against is impossible and evidence in favor scarce, then one assumes it doesnt exist.

I just point out that applying this principle truly in general leads to the result of assuming murder not to be wrong.
For murder to be wrong, individual human existance must be valuable. That humans are valuable might be true. One can certainly can never prove that humans are absolutely worthless. Yet, there is scarce evidence that humans are valuable, only humans claim that this is true, which is certainly not sufficient evidence. So just like with God’s existance or with the teapot, if we apply Russel’s reasoning to the issue of murder, the conclusion is that it has to be assumed that murder is not wrong because there is insufficient evidence in favor of humans being valuable.

Before you suggest that that is completely wrong, if it is wrong, it is wrong due to an error in Russel’s reasoning, as i just applied his reasoining.

I also think the conclusion is wrong. But i never found any atheist willing to apply their profound critical thinking to the question of whether they should not discard all what our society considers to be good for the same reason they discard god, all that human rights stuff is in principle mystic hogwash without any basis in empirical reality. Yet, they discard God, because He somewhat lacks empirical basis, but claim at the same time to embrace values that lack empirical basis as well.
That makes and shows forth more sense. Thank You a lot.

God bless
 
**Bagheera

Empiricism is a tool for the external reality, not for the abstract or axiomatically based sciences. **

You are absolutely right. The mathematician/philosopher Blaise Pascal pointed this out 4 centuries ago.

“We know the truth not only through reason, but also through our heart. It is through the latter that we know our first principles, and reason, which has nothing to do with it, tries in vain to refute them…our inability must therefore serve only to humble reason, which would like to be the judge of everything, but not to confute our certainty.” (Pensees)
 
You are absolutely right. The mathematician/philosopher Blaise Pascal pointed this out 4 centuries ago.

“We know the truth not only through reason, but also through our heart. It is through the latter that we know our first principles, and reason, which has nothing to do with it, tries in vain to refute them…our inability must therefore serve only to humble reason, which would like to be the judge of everything, but not to confute our certainty.” (Pensees)
Pascal was a great mathematician and a lousy philosopher. The reference to the “heart” is just a ridiculous euphemism for “emotions”. The phrase to “humble reason” is exactly the same as Luther’s proclamation, which said: “reason must be made the handmaiden of faith” and “reason must be trampled underfoot”… the hostility toward reason has never been expressed more clearly than that.
 
**Bagheera

Pascal was a great mathematician and a lousy philosopher. The reference to the “heart” is just a ridiculous euphemism for “emotions”. The phrase to “humble reason” is exactly the same as Luther’s proclamation, which said: “reason must be made the handmaiden of faith” and “reason must be trampled underfoot”… the hostility toward reason has never been expressed more clearly than that. **

I’d say you’re full of prunes, except that you’ve just said it. 😃

A great mathematician has to respect reason. He doesn’t have to respect reason over emotions or imagination or intuition, which seems to be your hangup.

Atheists never learn to trample on reason when it tries to trample on everything else.

I’m not a Lutheran. I respect reason. I do not accept the dictatorship of Reason over Imagination, Intuition, and Emotions. That way lies madness.
 
Pascal was a great mathematician and a lousy philosopher. The reference to the “heart” is just a ridiculous euphemism for “emotions”.
Nope. His reference to “heart” would be more like the “existential core of our being,” the point at which we participate in existence itself and essentially apprehend what is for what it is. This has little to do with emotions but more along the lines of Aristotle’s definition of truth as that which is. "To say of what is that it is not, or of what is not that it is, is false, while to say of what is that it is, and of what is not that it is not, is true” (Metaphysics 1011b25)
 
That is “verification” not “proof”. The theorem talks about ALL triangles with a right angle. There is the Goldbach conjecture, which says that **ALL **even numbers can be composed as the sum of two prime numbers. This conjecture has been **verified **for several million even numbers, but that does not constitute a “proof”. None of these can be proven “empirically”. Empiricism is a tool for the external reality, not for the abstract or axiomatically based sciences.
Oh, how sweet. That’s what people who believe in fairies say - that fairies must exist because no one can absolutely prove they don’t.

But no, it’s OK to prove something beyond reasonable doubt, courts do it all the time. And courts are part of real life, with real consequences, not ivory tower abstractions.
 
**inocente

Oh, how sweet. That’s what people who believe in fairies say - that fairies must exist because no one can absolutely prove they don’t.**

That’s not the question. People don’t say fairies must exist because no one can absolutely prove they don’t.

What people say is that you can’t prove fairies don’t exist because no one can absolutely prove they don’t. It follows that fairies might exist.

The same applies to God. You can’t prove God does not exist because there is no such proof. It follows that God might exist.

Once that possibility is admitted, the door is opened to whatever evidence may follow. It is atheism that slams the door on all such evidence.
 
I don’t understand. How exactly do you know that science will “never” be able to explain why the universe exists?
How can you possibly think you know this?
There are many things people thought science could never do or explain in the past, and it does now.

How can you “prove” that science will “never” be able to explain “why” the universe exists?

.
The word “how” refers to the means by which something came about. The word “why” refers to the reason for or explanation of its existence. If the Big Bang is the beginning of physical reality, the sequence of physical causes has a beginning. The “how,” at least, in terms of physical causation has arrived at its logical beginning.

Why the universe exists does not necessarily terminate at the Big Bang because there may be a reason or explanation for the universe that does not entail physical causal means (how.)

Using an analogy…

You come across a message in the sand that says, “HELP.”

How the message got there (the means) could be explained by the possibility that someone used a stick to write in the sand. Why the message is there (reason for) has nothing to do with the means, but rather might be explained by the possibility that a person or persons are looking to be rescued and have written the message in the hopes that possibility might come about.

How and why are completely different questions with completely different answers. Science, generally addresses how. For a scientist to claim that a why question is meaningless is beyond the parameters of what science can address.

Read Aristotle’s theory of the four causes for a more comprehensive view of causation than science addresses.
 
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