Hi SMM as does Hisalone, I distinguish between what is now called the Catholic Church and the universal church of the early centuries.
Jon,
What I’m trying to figure out is why Non-Catholic Christians accept the Authority of the Catholic Church on some issues, but not on all.
How can they reasonably accept the Authority of the Catholic Church in determining which of all the first century writings are to be considered a part of the New Testament aka inspired by the Holy Spirit and which aren’t, but also claim that they don’t believe in the Authority of the Catholic Church?
It’s doesn’t make any sense logically!
It would seem that this question comes up quite a lot around here…this is how I responded on another thread (with slight amendments):
Here is the way that I see it:
For both Protestants and Catholics it is:
a) I have faith that God revealed his message to us.
b) I have faith that scripture is a reliable record of that message.
c) I have faith that God used fallible men to first write down that message and then to preserve and recognize it .
The Catholic adds:
d) I have faith that all sacred tradition is also a reliable part of that message.
e) I have faith that God used fallible to first orally voice that message and then to preserve and recognize it.
f) I have faith that God uses fallible men as an infallible teaching authority
You seem to think that it is logically inconsistent to believe God used fallible men as stated in (c) but not as stated in (e) and/or (f). In reality, for most Protestants and Catholics there is no logic involved. They simply take as a matter of faith what their parents or what the guy at the front of the church tells them…it is not thought through. Wrt those people, one can’t say one view is logically superior to the other as both are merely positions of faith.
For those who have examined the matter, your accusation of logical inconsistency would apply if the Protestant accepted (b) and (c) based on evidence X and criteria Y and then rejected (d) and (e) and (f) when the exact same evidence X and criteria Y exist for (d), (e) and (f). But such is hardly the case. The ECFs identifed a certain set of writings as scripture to the exclusion all else. The ECFs did not identify a certain set of teachings as sacred tradition to the exclusion of all else (what they did identify as the core rule of faith can be entirely found in scripture). Next, we have manuscript after manuscript for scripture so that we can study the degree of error in the copying procedure and note where variations occur and then do are best to determine what was originally written. We do not have the same evidence to use to determine the degree of error in the transmission of sacred tradition. We have quotes from most books of the NT in the first extra-scriptural writings (known as the Apostolic Fathers{AFs}) so that we know these works existed before the time of the AFs and again from the manuscripts we know the tendency to make additions or alterations to the text. In contrast, the AFs do not make reference to anything about Mary (for example) apart from what is contained in Scripture (her virginity, that is) and so we don’t know that those traditions (of Marian doctrine) existed at the time of the AFs and we can’t study the tendency for additions using the same approach. Wrt scripture, we do not have to accept much of anything that the ECFs did after the first few centuries whereas wrt all sacred tradition we still have an obligation to accept developments at this time. Those distinctions are just for starters…and so I would suggest that one can recognize (c) and reject ( e) and (f) w/o needing to be logically inconsistent.
Further, as indicated (a)-(f) are all matters of faith and so when talking to someone outside the conservative Christian family we must admit that we possess these items of faith. The situation changes somewhat when we are having an in-house discussion. The Catholic admits (a)-(c) and so the Protestant can work off of that admission…Therefore, between you and me, it shouldn’t be a matter of me proving (a)-(c), but you proving (d), (e) and (f). If you want to say that I must accept (d) - (f) b/c I have accepted (a)-(c), then it sounds to me that you would be in the same position as a trial lawyer telling the judge that b/c he accepted the one statement from the witness, he must then accept everything the witness said.
What’s more is that you do a very similar thing. In Matt 16:16 you see Peter make an inspired declaration, one revealed to Peter by the Father. Does that mean that it would be illogical if you didn’t recognize all of Peter’s declarations as infallible? Of course not, and that is why we find subsequent erroneous declarations by Peter recorded elsewhere in the Bible.