I simply do not understand this. D&C 112:23 does apply Isaiah 60:2 to a total apostasy times. It refers to the world which had been and still was in a state of total apostasy, even though the Latter-day Saints are excluded from that apostasy because they had been rescued from it.
It refers to total apostasy in both cases. It refers to the total apostasy of all ancient orders of religion. It does not, nor does it logically need to, refer to the Restoration which reverses that Apostasy among Latter-day Saints.
Take as a starting point the following false syllogism:
Premise 1: If A is true then either X or Y is true.
Premise 2: A is true.
Conclusion:Therefore X is true.
I am guessing it will obvious why this syllogism does not work. The correct conclusion ought to be “Therefore X or Y is true.” The logical error is the unwarranted assumption that, contrary to the first premise, X is necessarily determined by A. The first premise does not support, but actually precludes, the necessity of the conclusion. This is clear, I think?
My argument has been that your application of Is 60:2, in light of D&C 112:28 has the same logical form as this false syllogism, and is disprovable for the same reason. In your case, the terms are defined in this way:
A = The words of Is 60:2
X = The fact of a world-encompassing apostasy
Y = The fact of a non-world-encompassing apostasy
If you fill in the syllogism with these terms, you get:
Premise 1: If the words of Isaiah 60:2 are true, then there is either a world-encompassing apostasy or non-world-encompassing apostasy.
Premise 2: The words of Isaiah 60:2 are true.
Conclusion: Therefore there is a world-encompassing apostasy.
Premise 2 is not in dispute, but you acknowledge Premise 1 at the very same time that you try to avoid it when you rightly say:
That clearly states that the world lies in a spiritually darkened and corrupt condition. This obviously does not include those whom it is addressing—i.e. the Latter-day Saints. They are not in the darkened state, because they have been rescued from it by the Restoration, which has enlightened their minds and provided them with the truth. But the rest of the world who are in the spiritually darkened state can legitimately be described as being in a state of Apostasy.
I am not failing to understand that that is what the verse is teaching. This is exactly what I have though all along. My point is not about the
meaning of D&C 112:38, but about the logical entailments that follow from it. Namely, the moment you say* the words of Is 60:2 can hold good at a time when Apostasy does not cover the whole world, Zion included, *you have at that instant conceded the main point in dispute, and you have validated Premise 1.
If you are still confused, the argument can be restated conversely as a reduction to the absurd:
Premise 1: The words of Isaiah 60:2 necessarily apply to times when there is no Church on earth.
Premise 2: The words of Isaiah 60:2 apply in one instance to Joseph Smith’s time.
Conclusion: Therefore, there must have been no Church on earth in Joseph’s Smith’s time.
From the standpoint of Mormonism, the conclusion is absurd. Therefore, either the logical form is fallacious or one of the premises is wrong. I see no flaw in logic, and, again, Premise 2 is not in dispute. Hence, Premise 1 is false. For this reason, to maintain the coherency of Joseph’s Smith’s own teaching, you must deny that premise. Yet the moment you reject it, you concede the contrary: that 60:2
need not refer to a time of a total absence of the Church from the earth. That granted, you cannot consistently claim that Is 60:2 is a problem text for Catholics.