C
captaincatholic
Guest
The issue at hand is the added wrongdoing of artificial contraceptives, whether oral, chemical, or a barrier. That is wrong, no matter what the circumstances.OK, Ill play along.
Even if a woman is 100%, completely positive she is infertile at the time, the sex is “procreative”, meaning the sex act itself is “capable” or producing a child, even though in reality, it will never do so.
In the morning, a woman takes her pill, and she is 98% certain she is infertile. She has sex, which is capable of producing a child. This is not procreative, even though it can produce a child.
Procreative, by the worlds definition, defines that sex must be capable or reproducing, or capable of procreation. Now, if you want to sell the idea that the first one is procreative, than the second one absolutely, positively is.
The ONLY way it is different, is if you tack on all the further restrictions NOT present in the common definition, only present in the Church.
Can we agree to this?