Born of Water and Spirit v. 2

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anrmenchaca47

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Disclaimer: this thread has already been done so I apologize for repeating it

Quick question:

John 1:33 states John saying that “I myself did not know him ; but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘ He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptized with the Holy Spirit.’

Yet in John 3:3 “Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom God.”

My question here is why did John mention in John 1:33 that it Christ would baptize with the Holy Spirit and say nothing of water? To me it seems that,on the surface, it takes on the view of being born again without using water.
 
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anrmenchaca47 . . .
My question here is why did John mention in John 1:33 that it Christ would baptize with the Holy Spirit and say nothing of water?
Probably to differentiate John the Baptist’s baptisms
which were NOT Christian baptism
but rather a prefigurement of Christian baptism.

St. John the Baptist’s baptism was merely a baptism of repentance.

Jesus’ Christian Baptism that He baptizes us with is MORE.
JOHN 1:32-34 32 And John bore witness, “I saw the Spirit descend as a dove from heaven, and it remained on him. 33 I myself did not know him; but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I have seen and have borne witness that this is the Son of God.”
NOT JOHN 1:32-34 32 And John bore witness, “I saw the Spirit descend as a dove from heaven, and it remained on him. 33 I myself did not know him; but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes ONLY with the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I have seen and have borne witness that this is the Son of God.”
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JOHN 3:3-6, 22 3 Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born anew, he cannot see the kingdom of God.” 4 Nicode′mus said to him, “How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born?” 5 Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water AND the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. . . . 22 After this Jesus and his disciples went into the land of Judea; there he remained with them and baptized.
Emphasis mine.
 
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Words do not matter. The practice taught by Christ to the Apostles, and which they handed on, is what matters.

2 Peter 3:16 controls all of scripture.
 
It’s a question of language. I think this has been noted before, on other threads. The Greek verb baptizein means, literally, “to dip” or “to plunge” in a liquid, usually water. John didn’t need to explain that “dipping” or “plunging” requires water. In the Septuagint, this is the verb used in 2 Kings 5:14 where Naaman cures himself of leprosy by following Elisha’s instructions and dipping himself seven times in the Jordan.

 
The water is a sign; the Holy Spirit is power in Himself. BUT the sign is important! Note these two passages:
[Acts 8:36] And as they went along the road they came to some water, and the eunuch said, “See, here is water! What is to prevent my being baptized?
and
[Luk 7:29 ] (When they heard this all the people and the tax collectors justified God, having been baptized with the baptism of John;
[Luk 7:30 ] but the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected the purpose of God for themselves, not having been baptized by him.)
The Church clearly from the beginning (as #1 above illustrates) began using water in the command of Jesus to baptize:
Mat 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Mat 28:20 teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age."
 
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