M
Mickey
Guest
Hello brother. Christ believes they are more alive than you or I.Christ does not believe they are dead. Why should we?
Hello brother. Christ believes they are more alive than you or I.Christ does not believe they are dead. Why should we?
I belong to the ICOC, which is somewhat of an off-shoot of the Church of Christ.What’s your denomination, if I may ask?
Yeah, I have it. Doesn’t mean I can hear millions of prayers at the same time, which would be required for Mary, or any other saint, to hear and “pray with us.”Who said they were? Ever heard of the Holy Spirit that unites the body of Christ?
Blessings
Strange mixture ya got there.Huh, well, you’d be surprised to learn then that most of what we affirm would be considered Catholic over Protestant.
Why would it be strange? Wherever the Traditional religions stick to the Scriptures, I tend to agree with them. We have a pretty Catholic view of Justification, the salvation “process”, the need for good works, etc.Strange mixture ya got there.
Is this the group run by Kip McKean and Al Baird?I belong to the ICOC, which is somewhat of an off-shoot of the Church of Christ.
Actually, Kip started his own group, after elders throughout the church realized he had way to much power and marginalized him. An obvious problem of not having an authoritative body, with checks and balances, to appeal to. Having experienced this first hand, you can possibly see why I began to consider more Traditional denominations.Is this the group run by Kip McKean and Al Baird?
I wasn’t implying that coming from a dictionary somehow invalidated them. If we read fragment 31 it doesn’t say that all relatives of Christ were cousins. It simply tries to align the children from scripture to the different Mary’s noted in scripture. But there’s no statement that reads. "The brothers and sisters of Christ were cousins only and Christ never had blood half brothers and sisters. I further don’t invalidate what Eusebius records as he also records other ECFs that imply Christ had blood half brothers. So if one was invalid then they all would have to be. But there’s definitely conflict somewhere.Like I said, no one has proven that the contents are not actually from Papias. Sure they were contained in a dictionary. The statements must have come from a Tradition in the Church, right? I mean Eusebius records many facts in his history. Would it be valid to say that he just made everything up at the time he wrote them?
I don’t think anyone can deny or confirm it. On the surface it looks like it came from a different time frame which could be a strike against it. But let’s assume the fragment is good. That doesn’t prove perpetual virginity.No one has denied it, not even the ANF writers.
It doesn’t indicate any truth. It just coincides with what the RC believes. What you believe and what is true are very different. At one time people preached and believed the world was flat. But that certainly wasn’t truth. Citing historical figures that say the world is flat doesn’t validate it as truth either. It just represents a belief they had. So if Eusebius records Ignatius as saying the world is flat. We know that argument would hold no water. So therefore we’d have to question when do we believe Ignatius and when do we not. Crude example but the principal is the same.Which would indicate the truth of the Catholic position.
Well if they were half-brothers then again we have conflict amongst the traditions which would force us to question who do we believe. Half brothers comes from the Infancy Gospel of James which cannot be used a reliable source. There are no other writings prior to the mid 4th century that explicitly state Mary was a perpetual virgin. So again we’re back to traditions wanting to believe something about Mary, and then creating explanations to justify that belief. The belief does not make a truth.Because they could have been half-brothers (which I think is the more plausible interpretation). Some Traditions claim they were half-brothers (from a previous marriage by Joseph). Some say they were cousins. But the common thread in all the Traditions is that they were NOT the Blessed Virgin’s own biological children.
Neither do I. But again the half brother explanation doesn’t hold up to what scripture tells us about the relationship between Mary and Joseph. By all interpretations of Matthew we see that this was an ordinary betrothed Jewish couple. Matthew 18 tells us before they came together using the word synerchomai which means conjugal cohabitation. So Matthew is communicating that sex was going to be a part of the relationship. If Mary had been found pregnant and was a virgin vowed to GOD, then Matthew wouldn’t be saying, before they came (synerchomai) together. He’s saying before meaning there was going to be a time when they would come together.If they were half-brothers, they would have been part of the same family. I don’t see anything peculiar about that.
Well according to the flesh means when Christ lived in the flesh here on earth. It’s referencing Judas who is mentioned as being the Lord’s brother in the Gospels. So then again if it was cousin or half brother we still re-surface the same issues we’ve been discussing.I don’t know. It seems to me the passage is only distinguishing between spiritual brotherhood versus brotherhood “according to the flesh.” Brotherhood “according to the flesh” could easily mean cousins or half-brothers.
I read 44. Which part did I not respond to?Blessings,
Marduk
No that’s not possible. Here’s why. If Mary was vowed to GOD then the Temple Priests would have found out she was pregnant eventually. They would have seen her. Taking the vow and showing up pregnant would have been an indictment on someone for violating that vow. Either Mary and her assailant, or her assailant if Mary was unwilling and had been raped. Saying Joseph put her away quietly just meant that he was not going to bring charges against Mary which would have disgraced her and her family. It also meant that he was declaring the baby did not belong to him.Thanks:thumbsup: For some reason this seems familular as a catholic teaching in regards to marriage to me:shrug:
ND you you wrote earlier that the reason Joseph was going to put Mary away privately,was because he had a deep affection for her…Could be that he was also wanting to protect her form the Temple priests?
NDFan - sorry for hijacking your thread for a couple pages. You’re doing a good job with exploring the facts here. I’ll take my discussions elsewhere if they can’t stay on topic.No that’s not possible. Here’s why. If Mary was vowed to GOD then the Temple Priests would have found out she was pregnant eventually. They would have seen her. Taking the vow and showing up pregnant would have been an indictment on someone for violating that vow. Either Mary and her assailant, or her assailant if Mary was unwilling and had been raped. Saying Joseph put her away quietly just meant that he was not going to bring charges against Mary which would have disgraced her and her family. It also meant that he was declaring the baby did not belong to him.
If Joseph wanted to protect Mary he would have taken responsibility for the pregnancy and accepted the consequences. By moving forward with the wedding he basically was announcing that the baby would be his. Either way the Temple Priests would have gotten involved because Mary’s vow would have been violated. The fact that Matthew never tells us Mary’s pregnancy was counter to her vow is a major strike against her ever taking a vow. We see her showing up pregnant being described as a violation against her betrothal. That she would not be a virgin when they consummated their marriage.
Again that’s why Matthew 1:18 is so key to this because we are told she got pregnant before they (her and Joseph) came together. Meaning she cheated on Joseph. The word again used for come together is synerchomai which literally means conjugal cohabitation. So if we were to apply a very simple English translation to this it would say: Mary was engaged to Joseph but before they consummated the marriage she became pregnant by the Holy Spirit. Knowing the child was not his and not wanting to disgrace Mary and her family, Joseph considered divorcing her instead of filing charges against her publicly. While deciding on the matter an Angel appeared to Joseph in a dream he had letting him know it was Ok to move forward with the wedding. That Mary did not cheat on him because the baby was from the Holy Spirit. The Angel then told Joseph Mary would have a boy that would be named Jesus and would save everyone from their sins. This happened because it was spoken by one of GOD’s prophets that a virgin would have a baby and he would be considered GOD incarnate. After getting up from his dream Joseph did what the Angel told him and married Mary BUT he did not have sex with her until she had her baby which Joseph called Jesus.
Gabriel please don’t try and use the argument about document Q. This has no foundation at all.Lukes Gospel does no damage to the blessed Virgin Mary, only your personal view of understanding Scripture and apostolic teaching gets revealed.
Luke was a Doctor and a Gentile, who spoke and wrote very good Greek which has a word for cousin. Many of the Gospel parallels were transcribed from the earliest recorded Jesus accounts from a document of “Q” which has some relation to the Gospel of Mark which recorded in Aramaic which had no word for cousin, just brothers was used to relate one to one anothers tribe.
This may help you understand a little about the recording of the Gospels, and how much care was taken not to change anything about them, thus you have Luke recording in Greek, from an Aramaic document which has no word for “cousin” only “brothers”. If you noticed Luke was not an eyewitness account of Jesus. Luke was a disciple of Paul. Who had access to the many eyewitnesses to Jesus ministry. What Luke possibly did not get the living eyewitness account of Jesus, Luke recorded from the document of “Q”, thus you have the word “cousin” and “brothers” being used. This Gospel of Luke does not in any way support Mary gave birth to more than one Son, or that she engaged in marital affairs with Joseph.
This is why Apostolic Sacard Tradition is so important to understanding Catholicism from the first century eyewitness accounts, because the Catholic church was there and is still here holding to these apostolic christian belief’s. Which are not visible to the reader, but to the spirit all these mysteries of God get revealed perfectly. For the natural person cannot accept the spiritual realities revealed by God in the Spirit. But the Spiritual person has the mind of Christ.
Yes, I pointed this out as well. The Q theory has the same origins as a lot of very liberal theories that likewise seek to discredit the Biblical Jesus, and attempt to “revise” the Bible to find what “really” happened.Gabriel please don’t try and use the argument about document Q. This has no foundation at all.
The protestant argument does hold water. The use of the word heos hou does not have the same meaning as heos. Heos confirms a status up until a time constraint is met. It does not confirm the status is continued after. But it does not deny the status continued.Yes. There are many examples of the word “until” being used in a different way. The protestant “until argument” does not hold water.
Ralph my brother be careful with this one. Matthew 28 as I just described in another post does not use heos hou. It uses heos. And the wording for until the end of time is the greek word aion which literally means forever. So Christ was not trying to signify a change is HIS status of being with us. HE was confirming that HE would always be with us. This is far different from saying Joseph did not have sex with Mary until Jesus was born. The birth of Christ signifies an end state of the previous condition which is marital relations.Matt 28:20
I know. You posted that much after I did. The issue there is not with the until but with the what was the deadline, so to speak.Ralph my brother be careful with this one. Matthew 28 as I just described in another post does not use heos hou. It uses heos. And the wording for until the end of time is the greek word aion which literally means forever. So Christ was not trying to signify a change is HIS status of being with us. HE was confirming that HE would always be with us. This is far different from saying Joseph did not have sex with Mary until Jesus was born. The birth of Christ signifies an end state of the previous condition which is marital relations.
Again this is not a valid comparison as the word heos is used here and not heos hou.This one offered by canto is also good:
“Luke 1:80 says that John the Bapitst was in the wilderness “until the day of his manifestation to Israel.” Does this mean that once he appeared he left the wilderness?”
When it is said “until X, I never did Y”—it does not mean that "after X, I did do Y.
This is a false assumption.
Chip you’re fine. Keep going brotherNDFan - sorry for hijacking your thread for a couple pages. You’re doing a good job with exploring the facts here. I’ll take my discussions elsewhere if they can’t stay on topic.
Yep. I can’t believe any Catholic would use this. Chip you ever read dissertations on Holy Scripture by William Whittaker. I know you don’t subscribe to scripture alone but he does a great job at discrediting the Q document.Yes, I pointed this out as well. The Q theory has the same origins as a lot of very liberal theories that likewise seek to discredit the Biblical Jesus, and attempt to “revise” the Bible to find what “really” happened.
Correct I’m with you on that. In this case it confirms that there is no deadline. But it is derived not from the word heos by itself. It’s taken from the word aion which signifies forever. Actually a simpler way of stating the verse is: “and behold I am with you forever”. Matthew wrote it more artistically by saying until the end of time.I know. You posted that much after I did. The issue there is not with the until but with the what was the deadline, so to speak.
That rings a bell; I’ll check it out. These claims always alarm me, because they indicate that all the gospel writers colluded and stole information from elsewhere rather than what they claimed to be: eyewitnesses, or interviewers of eyewitnesses.Yep. I can’t believe any Catholic would use this. Chip you ever read dissertations on Holy Scripture by William Whittaker. I know you don’t subscribe to scripture alone but he does a great job at discrediting the Q document.