P
prodromos
Guest
What evidence? I’ve already posited that Salome being a daughter to Joseph and Mary being betrothed to Joseph, he was essentially her permanent guardian, puts both Salome and Mary in a relationship with the house of Joseph, for want of a better term, thus it would be perfectly reasonable for them to be referred to as sisters. The Church is clear that Mary was an only child thus it would only be through having Joseph in common that Mary could call someone sister.But when you get evidence…
As for Papias, you haven’t provided evidence, you have simply claimed that Papias wrote such, and all that establishes is that there was more than one view floating around. Obviously they can’t all be true.
Rome didn’t establish the feast day of the Dormition of Mary until long after it had been celebrated in the East, and I believe some of the other Marian feast days followed the same pattern of being established in the East first with Rome adding them to the Latin calendar later. This clearly implies that knowledge pertaining to the life of Mary had been maintained in the East, such as when the Emperor requested the relics of Mary be transferred to Constantinople from Jerusalem, only to be informed by the Bishop of Jerusalem that there were no bodily relics of Mary as she had been assumed bodily into heaven after her death. The Church in Jerusalem had knowledge of Mary, and of Joseph and his children that was not common knowledge throughout the rest of the Church.