D
dzheremi
Guest
Why is what you’ve pointed out a problem, Analyzer? I don’t think you understood my post. There is no problem here but the one you’ve created for yourself. For Christians, it doesn’t exist, for the reasons I gave in my other post.
Also, doesn’t the footnote you quoted give a probable reason why it appears in Hebrew in one Gospel and in Aramaic in another? I don’t think this is evidence of anything other than what is suggested there (though I am personally okay with admitting that I do not have a conclusive answer for you), and it is certainly NOT evidence of truth in your fantasies regarding the “corrupted” nature of the Bible.
Also, doesn’t the footnote you quoted give a probable reason why it appears in Hebrew in one Gospel and in Aramaic in another? I don’t think this is evidence of anything other than what is suggested there (though I am personally okay with admitting that I do not have a conclusive answer for you), and it is certainly NOT evidence of truth in your fantasies regarding the “corrupted” nature of the Bible.