Can a Catholic be Democrat?

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Nepperhan:
You know, stating that under our Constitution abortion is legal is not killing anyone or being pro-abortion. Many folks refuse to remember this.
Abortion is unconstitutional.
If you are speaking of the legal meaning, what is constitutional and unconstitutional is defined by the courts, especially the Supreme Court. And currently it is constitutional. It may become unconstitutional some day if the court so rules, but for now it is constitutional. Now if you are speaking of the moral question, then don’t use the legal language. Use the language of morality.
 
If you are speaking of the legal meaning, what is constitutional and unconstitutional is defined by the courts, especially the Supreme Court. And currently it is constitutional. It may become unconstitutional some day if the court so rules, but for now it is constitutional. Now if you are speaking of the moral question, then don’t use the legal language. Use the language of morality.
I have no disagreements with that! But we don’t want to be arguing for something using false premises either.
Jane Roe (Also known as Norma McCorvey) lied in order to set the law. That makes it an invalid law, doesn’t it? 🙂
 
Jane Roe (Also known as Norma McCorvey) lied in order to set the law. That makes it an invalid law, doesn’t it? 🙂
That depends on how you define “invalid”. From a Catholic moral standpoint or a SCOTUS standpoint? Certainly from a Catholic standpoint it is an unjust law that shouldn’t be obeyed, but as far as the US is concerned, which does not follow Catholic morality, it is part of the Law of the Land. The SCOTUS didn’t uphold her story, they upheld her argument. And as far as the judicial system of the US goes, the only ways that interpretation is ever going to be made invalid is either by another SCOTUS case that overturns the previous decision, or a Constitutional amendment.

That all being said, if you’re going to argue that it’s unconstitutional (not necessarily invalid), then your argument must be based in the Constitution.
 
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That’s not accurate. The Democratic party has been active in reducing the incidence of abortion. That’s not even debatable.
what have the Dems done but expanded access and now some are pushing infanticide.
You know, stating that under our Constitution abortion is legal is not killing anyone or being pro-abortion. Many folks refuse to remember this.
are you saying it is not the murder of the unborn?
 
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JSRG:
Where? When?
Gonzales vs. Carhart, 550 U.S. 124 (2007)
But what you claimed (“Every Dem appointee voted to make late term abortion a “constitutional right” that could not be banned.”) is not what Gonzales v. Carhart said. The reasoning of the dissent was that the law had two problems: First, it could apply before the point of viability, and, more importantly, it did not have a health exception. (“It [the majority decision] blurs the line, firmly drawn in Casey, between previability and postviability abortions. And, for the first time since Roe, the Court blesses a prohibition with no exception safeguarding a woman’s health.”) Had the law been corrected for those, it would have, per the reasoning, been constitutional. To claim that this means they “voted to make late term abortion a constitutional right that could not be banned” is to misrepresent what was actually said in the dissent.
 
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Woah, woah, woah - let’s not start actually reading the decisions! Its much more fun to just characterize them however we please! 😉
 
First, it could apply before the point of viability, and, more importantly, it did not have a health exception. (“It [the majority decision] blurs the line, firmly drawn in Casey, between previability and postviability abortions.
The line that makes abortion “on demand”. And regardless, why should there be a “line” between “previability” (abortion with no restriction) and “postviability” (some restrictions permissible)
Killing is killing.
 
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JSRG:
First, it could apply before the point of viability, and, more importantly, it did not have a health exception. (“It [the majority decision] blurs the line, firmly drawn in Casey, between previability and postviability abortions.
The line that makes abortion “on demand”. And regardless, why should there be a “line” between “previability” (abortion with no restriction) and “postviability” (some restrictions permissible)
Killing is killing.
What does it matter–in the context of this conversation–whether that line makes it abortion on demand? You claimed that "Every Dem appointee voted to make late term abortion a “constitutional right” that could not be banned.” I asked when they did this, you pointed to a case, and then I explained how that case was not doing what you claimed. Rather than supporting the original claim you made, you’re bringing up a different topic altogether.
 
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I asked when they did this, you pointed to a case, and then I explained how that case was not doing what you claimed. Rather than supporting the original claim you made, you’re bringing up a different topic altogether.
The case was exactly about whether partial birth abortion would be deemed a constitutional right, and that’s exactly what the “Dissent” considered, reviewing the principles enunciated in other cases in which abortion was considered a right.
 
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JSRG:
I asked when they did this, you pointed to a case, and then I explained how that case was not doing what you claimed. Rather than supporting the original claim you made, you’re bringing up a different topic altogether.
The case was exactly about whether partial birth abortion would be deemed a constitutional right, and that’s exactly what the “Dissent” considered, reviewing the principles enunciated in other cases in which abortion was considered a right.
Except it didn’t say that partial birth abortion was a constitutional right. It stated that abortion in general (including partial birth abortion) prior to the point of viability was a constitutional right, and the law needed to specify that to pass constitutional muster. While there might be some disagreement as to the exact timeframe of a “late-term abortion”, I doubt anyone would argue that an abortion prior to the point of viability would count.
 
Except it didn’t say that partial birth abortion was a constitutional right. It stated that abortion in general (including partial birth abortion) prior to the point of viability was a constitutional right, and the law needed to specify that to pass constitutional muster
Same thing.
While there might be some disagreement as to the exact timeframe of a “late-term abortion”, I doubt anyone would argue that an abortion prior to the point of viability would count.
I’m not a neonatologist, so I couldn’t say any more than you could. But medical science has a way of pushing the “point of viability” back with some degree of regularity. That’s one of the reasons why the original Supreme Court cases dividing the right to kill among the three trimesters is ridiculous. And when you add the “health” of the mother, which the dissent did for partial birth abortion in Carhart, that’s basically abortion on demand, including partial birth abortion. But then, it has really always been abortion on demand at all stages until Carhart.
 
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JSRG:
Except it didn’t say that partial birth abortion was a constitutional right. It stated that abortion in general (including partial birth abortion) prior to the point of viability was a constitutional right, and the law needed to specify that to pass constitutional muster
Same thing.
It certainly isn’t the same thing as your original claim of them saying late-term abortions were a constitutional right, which again, they didn’t say. You keep pivoting on this; rather than point to proof they said what you claimed they did, you keep pointing to them saying different things than you claimed they did.
I’m not a neonatologist, so I couldn’t say any more than you could. But medical science has a way of pushing the “point of viability” back with some degree of regularity. That’s one of the reasons why the original Supreme Court cases dividing the right to kill among the three trimesters is ridiculous. And when you add the “health” of the mother, which the dissent did for partial birth abortion in Carhart, that’s basically abortion on demand, including partial birth abortion. But then, it has really always been abortion on demand at all stages until Carhart.
I’m not going to deny that the original trimester rules were absolutely ridiculous, the most ridiculous part of Roe v. Wade–which is saying something (even those who later upheld the central holding of Roe had no patience for its absurd trimester rules). But again, this isn’t proving your original statement.
 
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Ok…did you ask this to REALLY seek answers? Or just stir the pot? Cause I read down quite a ways before I made an effort to answer you, so that I wouldn’t be stirring the pot?
Here are some questions you should ponder before you go cast your vote…
Do you want to vote Democrat just because everyone else is, or because your heart truly is in the Democrat party?
Are you voting Democrat (to put it on today’s millennial vernacular) because Trump?
What is YOUR stance on homosexuality/same sex marriage? Not your candidates…YOURS.
What is YOUR stance on abortion? Not your candidates…YOURS?
Because see…I’m Christian…Protestant Christian, not Catholic Christian…but the one thing I could NEVER understand was how Catholics in Massachusettes (a high Catholic citizen state) always votes for Democrats, knowing what & how they stand on homosexuality & abortion. Two things that OUR SAVIOUR JESUS & God His Father are both VEHEMINITLY against.
Check yourself, & if you thing you are good on those two things, then by all means, vote as you wish…but if your conscience bothers you on those two things…then you better vote differently than how you want to, because your conscience is your Heavenly Father, speaking to you.
Does my answer help???
 
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Produce the evidence and we’ll look at it. Support of abortion is even in your party’s platform.
That has nothing to do with preventing unwanted pregnancies. And you know what prevention of unwanted pregnancies does.
 
Nowhere does the constitution say that. Legalizing it was invented by the Supreme Court. Supporting politicians who want to keep it legal is being complicit in killing.
OK. Look for a right to privacy in the Constitution. Your equating supporting an accurate reading of Constitutional law with being complicit in killing is inaccurate, morally.
 
NEVER understand was how Catholics in Massachusettes (a high Catholic citizen state) always votes for Democrats, knowing what & how they stand on homosexuality & abortion.
Considering your question seriously, and not just rhetorically, I would say Catholic Democrats in Mass were led down the path to acceptance of sexual immorality by the Kennedy family, whom the citizens revered beyond reason, buttressed by clerics who were of the same mind. Ultimately, a very great number of Catholics was led astray.

But I think another thing played into it. Massachusetts is a very “Yankee” state. Social reform movements in the U.S. tend to begin in “Yankee” areas. Perhaps to avoid people thinking I’m juxtaposing “southerners” to “Yankees”, I’ll instead say “Neo-Puritans by culture”. I don’t mean “Puritan” in the sense most people think of it; rigidly moral. Puritanism was a “social reform” movement primarily. The underlying philosophical belief is that morality is fundamentally a matter of social structure; a belief very much prevalent in the “Yankee east” today and in its “colonies” in the Great Lakes region and West Coast. For a long time, Catholics did not become “Yankees” (neo-puritans) but ultimately adopted the philosophy.
 
. Look for a right to privacy in the Constitution. Your equating supporting an accurate reading of Constitutional law with being complicit in killing is inaccurate, morally.
Even Ginsberg, a definite abortion supporter, thinks that reason is flawed. They just invented a right to abortion out of the whole cloth. Might as well have squeezed it out of the Commerce Clause because, after all, people sometimes cross state lines for abortions.
 
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