G
Gorgias
Guest
Not by the individuals themselves, no. Rather, by their ancestors.So the genes they have in common do not indicate mating.
LOL!I have only seen the argument that there were either common genes, common physical traits, or that there is evidence that they shared a similar habitat range and so they “likely would have mated.” Which doesn’t follow. I went to college with plenty of attractive members of my same species of opposite gender, and it does not follow that I then “likely would have mated.”
No, but their argument doesn’t have to do with a particular set of individuals mating, as yours does.
Their argument points to other considerations. After all, the alternative is that modern humans evolved from Neandertals, and the DNA evidence does not tend to support that theory.
Except the rest of the model demonstrates that the divergence between fruit flies and us or mice and us happened way up the chain, whereas there’s not that evidence for human / Neandertal divergence.then we have to say common DNA with fruit flies (60%) means we mated with this at some point, quite frequently. Even more so mice—90% shared genetic code!
You’re looking at cause and effect, then, and saying “so what?”…?!?And yes, we diverged from the fruit fly way, WAY up the evolutionary chain according to all evolutionary theories—and yet share 60% of our genes. Still. With no mating.
Yes. Neandertals and humans co-existed, and in contact with each other. You know what the most simple explanation is, don’t you (even if it doesn’t hold with your undergrad experience)?As far as having to have mates to share DNA—apply Ockham’s Razor. The theory that most simply explains the observation is likely to be the best one.