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Gamera
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Sure it is. “Prayer” is simply communication. “Pray” doesn’t mean worship.Not so. The context is the meeting of the angel with Mary. Its not a prayer from the angel to Mary.
Sure it is. “Prayer” is simply communication. “Pray” doesn’t mean worship.Not so. The context is the meeting of the angel with Mary. Its not a prayer from the angel to Mary.
So, you do believe that angels can intercede for us? I thought your opinion was that no one but Christ could intercede for us. I thought your opinion was that no one in Heaven could actually communicate with us at all.Not so. The context is the meeting of the angel with Mary. Its not a prayer from the angel to Mary.
good point there happycatholic!So, you do believe that angels can intercede for us? I thought your opinion was that no one but Christ could intercede for us. I thought your opinion was that no one in Heaven could actually communicate with us at all.
Please clarify.
The prayer was addressed to “Lord” not Jesus. Maybe that prayer was addressed to God the Father.Acts 1:24 is a direct prayer to the Lord Jesus. How about a prayer in the NT directly to Mary?
Prayer is more than just communication. When you talk with your loved ones and friends do you and they consider it prayer?Originally Posted by justasking4 View Post
Not so. The context is the meeting of the angel with Mary. Its not a prayer from the angel to Mary.
Gamera;
Sure it is. “Prayer” is simply communication. “Pray” doesn’t mean worship.
happilycatholic;4362455]
Originally Posted by justasking4 View Post
Not so. The context is the meeting of the angel with Mary. Its not a prayer from the angel to Mary.
I can’t think of any teaching in the Scriptures where this is said. Do you have a reference?happilycatholic
So, you do believe that angels can intercede for us?
I thought your opinion was that no one but Christ could intercede for us. I thought your opinion was that no one in Heaven could actually communicate with us at all.
True on both.Please clarify.
There is only one Lord and that Lord is Jesus.Originally Posted by justasking4 View Post
Acts 1:24 is a direct prayer to the Lord Jesus. How about a prayer in the NT directly to Mary?
janw
The prayer was addressed to “Lord” not Jesus. Maybe that prayer was addressed to God the Father.
Lord is used in the OT many times and I think they were referring to God the Father not Jesus.There is only one Lord and that Lord is Jesus.
That may have been true in the OT but in the verse in Acts 1 it is the Lord Jesus since they now know Him as the risen Lord. Acts 1:21 bears this out where is says:Lord is used in the OT many times and I think they were referring to God the Father not Jesus.
God is not a man. For example it is forbidden for us to take an innocent life or to destroy a nation yet God did these things because of Who He is. He has control over the angels and no one can say it is wrong for Him to use angels if so chooses. We see that He used and angel to announce to Mary how the Lord Jesus was to come into the world. He used dreams to direct her husband. We do not possess such powers or authority.Justasking4. I really never got an answer from you. You said we can only use God to intercede for you. Well then if that is true why did God do the opposite. Why would God use an Angel to intercede for him. God sent the Angel to the Blessed Mother. Now why would God brake one of his own commandments. Because according to you we should not do this. Why then did God in fact do this?
Not so. The context is during an election. It said “Lord” not “Jesus” They didn’t use one of their common names for Jesus. They might have been praying to the Father. Aren’t there more?Acts 1:24 is a direct prayer to the Lord Jesus. How about a prayer in the NT directly to Mary?
Are you referring Job prays for his friends? If so, that is a biblical thing to do. It is a biblical thing for for fellow believers in this world to pray directly to God through the Lord Jesus. What’s not biblical is to ask a departed believer to pray for you.And Justforasking4 you never did answer my question in Job. Why did God tell Jobs friends to intercede for them? Again you never seem to answer me? just in case your forgot Job 42 read the whole chapter.
Hi justasking,Acts 1:24 is a direct prayer to the Lord Jesus. How about a prayer in the NT directly to Mary?
What i’m trying to do first and of first importance is: Is the claim or teaching found in the Scriptures? If not, it cannot be apostolic since the apostles never taught such a thing.Hi justasking,
You won’t find any reference in the NT to “praying to Mary” or “praying to the saints”. Why? Because they didn’t call it that back then. (I’m not sure when the phrase “praying to the saints / Mary” became popular, but it is not a recent invention. If you’d like I’d be happy to find a quote from St. Thomas Aquinas defending “praying to Mary”.)
But thats not what was said. God told job’s friends to have him pray for them. It has nothing to do with a biblical thing. I have never heard of a biblical thing. You either listen to the word of God or you do not. Now would you not consider Job praying for his friends intercession or not? Why did God not tell Jobs friends to pray for themselves. Because according to you we cannot intercede for others. But In Job it plainly states otherwise. Now how in the world could it be okay for job to intercede for us and not the Mother of CHrist?Are you referring Job prays for his friends? If so, that is a biblical thing to do. It is a biblical thing for for fellow believers in this world to pray directly to God through the Lord Jesus. What’s not biblical is to ask a departed believer to pray for you.
Yes, in the original sense of the word “pray,” it certainly is. Sometimes in legal papers we still use “pray” in that fashion: “Wherefore your affiant prays the court to grant the following relief…” That doesn’t mean the affiant is worshipping the judge. It means “communicate.”Prayer is more than just communication. When you talk with your loved ones and friends do you and they consider it prayer?
“And another angel came and stood at the altar with a golden censer; and he was given much incense to mingle with the prayers of all the saints upon the golden altar before the throne; and the smoke of the incense rose with the prayers of the saints from the hand of the angel before God,” Rev. 8:3.happilycatholic
So, you do believe that angels can intercede for us?
I can’t think of any teaching in the Scriptures where this is said. Do you have a reference?
Nevertheless, I think rinnie’s idea is very reasonable: if God uses angels as messengers to speak to us, doesn’t it make sense that he would also have them bring our prayers to him?God is not a man. For example it is forbidden for us to take an innocent life or to destroy a nation yet God did these things because of Who He is. He has control over the angels and no one can say it is wrong for Him to use angels if so chooses. We see that He used and angel to announce to Mary how the Lord Jesus was to come into the world. He used dreams to direct her husband. We do not possess such powers or authority.