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Linusthe2nd
Guest
That is not what I said. His human intellect knew by infused knowledge from his Divinity what his Divine Person wanted it to know. But he did not want the Disciples to be curious so he just said " …no man knows, but the Father knows…" He was saying that his humanity did not know all by itself.So what Jesus knows as a man is not the same as what He knows as God? They are different, is that correct?
I gave the answer that the Scriptures uses different forms of speech, metaphore, parables, literal according to the purpose of the Holy Spirit. And since the Scriptures clearly show that God is all knowing and all powerful, these passages must be assumed to be some figure of speech and not the literal meaning. As to their real meaning that depends on the verse what the Church and Theologians teach about it. Each instance would have to be examined separately.But still you did not answer the other objections where the Lord God appears not to know certain things at least according to the Bible:
Remember that Moses was teaching an ignorant people, so he spoke to them in a human way so they could understand what he was teaching. They would hardly sit still and listen to a theological dissertation, they wouldn’t understand. So he spoke to them in everyday language and in everyday forms.Why would God ask Adam where he was? Why would God want to go down and see if the people had obeyed His commands, if He already knew? Why would He want to search with lamps?
Linus2nd