Cardinal Muller: no need to clarify Amoris Laetitia [CC]

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Full consent: check. Moral theology is clear on the conditions that remove free will to the extent of making a sinful act not sinful, or at least not mortally sinful. Conditions such as brute force, fear of one’s life, and so on. ***None ***of these conditions apply to a couple cohabiting in an irregular union and freely engaging in sexual acts. I can give you the necessary references if you like.
This is the point I think some priests will address. Your list of mitigating factors is not exhaustive. The one that will apply here will be addiction, that is force of habit. Gaining full knowledge through a process of discernment may well take that which was viewed and practiced as a moral good into being a moral evil, but the impetus to practice, emotional, habitual and even chemical dependence does not abate.
 
They can’t, but then a new practice never has to reconcile with the old practice. I am not supporting the Malta guidelines, only pointing out that there must be a clear contradiction of doctrine. I do not see there being any absolute contradiction by moving from communion based on objectively visible situations to one based on the state of the soul. It might be unwise, but not logically impermissible. One who is unworthy to receive communion cannot morally receive because of his unworthiness, not because of the way his situation seems. Also, one cannot morally receive if he does so in deliberate disregard to the practice of the Church, but this latter can be modified as long as it does not contradict the former.
So you yourself don’t think that the Maltese guidelines can be reconciled with the various quotes from Familiaris Consortio, the Catechism etc that I posted.

It does have to reconciled if there are issues of Doctrine involved.
 
Well, I am sure we are all relieved that you had sufficient time to pen several paragraphs of gratuitous insults.
I had some helpful responses for you below but if this is how you see my assistance there is no point in doing so as my intent is not to insult you or unnecessarily wound your ego.

Just a few yes’s or no’s then before leaving you also to your own devices…
The scholastic meaning…that would be the (unspecified) definition that allows your assertion to be considered accurate. This would be in contrast to the (previously specified) church’s meaning which is what makes my assertion accurate.
The “Church’s” moral theology faithfully and 95% of the time uses the Scholastic system, concepts and terms when it comes to moral analysis…
It would seem the point to take away from this is the fact that merely following one’s conscience does not guarantee lack of culpability for the sins one commits
Obviously we all accept this, the CCC speaks of those who take little trouble to prior form their conscience. But also there are those who do.
In theory perhaps, but not so much in practice. Take the case of a couple who, though familiar with the church’s teaching on contraception, decide they are justified in using it, and do so with a clear conscience. Is theirs vincible or invincible ignorance?
Confessorial discernment ios obviously required as it could be either. The Valemecum obviously was written with this issue in mind.
Our debate is not over the existence of invincible ignorance but how it is constituted, and it is not guaranteed merely by sincerity of conscience.
It is by the definition of “sincerity” I provided you earlier.
Is a material sin a moral evil?
No. How can a transgression which is not even a “human act” be anything more than a form of sleep-walking?

Is it a “sin”? Strictly speaking no, loosely yes. (Only mortal sin is “true” sin). Its a very subtle distinction. Is just the “material” component of a “substance” enough to name the “substance” (these are scholastic philosophic terms).

This is what got you confused in the NAdvent article on “sin”.
It over simplified how variably even moral theologians use the word “sin” from one sentence to the next. Its exact meaning often requires deft understanding of the context.
This will be an interesting answer in that If you say no then you disagree with the church which defines sin as “nothing else than a morally bad act…”
This is clearly a bit of a hyperbole for the sake of clarification. If you read the rest of De Malo, where this quote comes from, that becomes clearer.
That is, we do colloquially see “sin” as more than complete formal sin. That is, material sin is also validly called “sin” even though it is not “true” sin.

Its a pity I am not going to speak further with you on these last points due to your negative attitude above. Its a very interesting topic.
 
Bishop Stephen Lopes, head of the Personal Ordinariate of the Chair of St. Peter, has issued application guidance on Amoris Laetitia presenting an interpretation consistent with the Church’s traditional teaching on the reception of Communion by those civilly divorced and remarried Catholics.

ncregister.com/daily-news/ordinariate-bishop-issues-pastoral-letter-on-amoris-laetitia
It is pretty astonishing how people can have such different interpretations of the same document in Amoris Laetitia. Has this ever happened with an Apostolic Exhortation before?

I feel sorry for divorced and remarried people. They are going to go into one parish and be able to receive Communion and go another and they will not. Without a clarification which calls for a definitive unitive interpretation, this is going to happen, and some divorced and remarried could end up actually feeling more at odds with the Church because of differing interpretations among parishes.

I don’t know think I’ve ever heard of different parishes having different policies, so to speak, in regards to something so serious as a Sacrament. I don’t understand this. It is mind-blowing.
 
This is the point I think some priests will address. Your list of mitigating factors is not exhaustive. The one that will apply here will be addiction, that is force of habit. Gaining full knowledge through a process of discernment may well take that which was viewed and practiced as a moral good into being a moral evil, but the impetus to practice, emotional, habitual and even chemical dependence does not abate.
It seems fairly clear to me that St Paul would have much to say re the mitigating forces of the reproductive instinct not only in the sexually experienced (don’t abstain too long even for prayer, pay the marital debt etc) but also in a certain percentage of the unmarried male population (it is better to marry than to burn, not everyone can lead a life of virginity).

So if one could not lead a life of virginity before a 1st marriage it is highly unlikely one will be able to do so when suddenly requested to do so 4 years into a happy and stable 2nd marriage.

Just say’in.
 
Moderator: Merging the threads made these an absolute mess to try and read. 😦
 
I don’t know think I’ve ever heard of different parishes having different policies, so to speak, in regards to something so serious as a Sacrament. I don’t understand this. It is I mind-blowing.
Actually, it isn’t even unusual. I knew two priests twenty or so years ago who revealed during private discussions that they certainly would not refuse communion to anyone. It was just not a judgment they were willing to make, and it was my understanding that more than a few priests felt this way.
 
Actually, it isn’t even unusual. I knew two priests twenty or so years ago who revealed during private discussions that they certainly would not refuse communion to anyone. It was just not a judgment they were willing to make, and it was my understanding that more than a few priests felt this way.
But individual priests that have acted in such a way is different from what is going on now where different interpretations of a document is leading to different understandings and implementations in regards to a Sacrament in terms of guidelines. I can’t recall that happening before.
 
But individual priests that have acted in such a way is different from what is going on now where different interpretations of a document is leading to different understandings and implementations in regards to a Sacrament in terms of guidelines. I can’t recall that happening before.
Yes. If framed this way, I have to agree. The situation really ought to be clarified. A concern is the way implementation of AL has apparently been delegated literally across the globe. It is not so clear that a clarification is even possible at this point.
 
I slippery slope argument must have some historical justification to have validity. I do not see it here. Rather, Amoris Laetitia reaffirms the teaching teaching on homosexuality. I will let the moderators decide if this thread of thought justifies expanding the topic to included a broad range of morality.

All this dittoing seems ironic and appropriate.
It would be odd to try to keep others from discussing what they see as the inevitable (and troubling) consequence of the interpretation of AL that allows the remarried to receive communion without repentance. It is absolutely relevant. That cut-off would be an artificial boundary imposed on the crux of the problem under discussion.

You dont need history to determine slippery slope. You just need a principle that can be applied to anything.

The pope reiterates that homosexual practices are sinful and yet if he is understood as allowing persons who commit sinful acts like adultery, knowing that they are sinful, having every intention of continuing to commit them, to receive communion, why exactly would people in a sexual homosexual relationship be told they cant receive communion too??? What would be used to tell them to stay away from the communion line? Who would judge their conscience as more culpuble than that of a person in a second marriage who knows that in the church’s and God’s eyes, that marriage is adulterous?

And no one “implied” anything about YOU. They discussed the IMPLICATIONS of the PRACTICE you were defending. It doesnt matter what you personally believe to be out of bounds, like a future practice of all sinners approaching without confession, with the approval or even encouragement of clergy. If you are basing this belief on a blind faith and not showing exactly why a principle about sin, repetance and communion-reception would magically fail to affect all other matters of sin, repentance and communion-reception, but just believing and insisting “it wont, it wont, it wont”, then no one is “implying” anything about you except that you are wrong in your assumptions that a practice like this could be contained to just one particular sin. You dont have to assume that anyone is saying anything about you or the pope except that you are wrong.

It is a debate about the wisdom or lack thereof of permitting this practice consistently forbidden by our holy church ever since our Lord uttered those words about marriage and introduced the Eucharist 2000 years ago. It is not an accusation about your beliefs regarding the righftfulness of things like homosexuality. It is obvious you think these are very wrong. That doesnt mean you are right about what you assume to be the non-effects of the episcopate explicitly and publicly allowing public sinners to approach the Lords table without repentance.
 
If you were a recently ordained priest I am afraid I don’t know any experienced priest who would recommend you for Confessional faculties on the basis of these statements Justin :o.

So you believe Pope Francis has tossed principles of Catholic morality overboard?
That’s a tad unrealistic a view of the current situation if you really believe that.
Tell you what. I suggest a dare - that we continue the discussion without either party using the word “you” or “your” once, except as indefinite pronouns. We just limit ourselves to the subject matter of each other’s posts.

Whaddaya say?
 
This is the point I think some priests will address. Your list of mitigating factors is not exhaustive. The one that will apply here will be addiction, that is force of habit. Gaining full knowledge through a process of discernment may well take that which was viewed and practiced as a moral good into being a moral evil, but the impetus to practice, emotional, habitual and even chemical dependence does not abate.
Nope. Habitual sins, a.k.a. vices, do not remove culpability. This is standard moral theology. Would you like references? (in other words, do I really need to say this?)
 
This is the point I think some priests will address. Your list of mitigating factors is not exhaustive. The one that will apply here will be addiction, that is force of habit. Gaining full knowledge through a process of discernment may well take that which was viewed and practiced as a moral good into being a moral evil, but the impetus to practice, emotional, habitual and even chemical dependence does not abate.
Yes, but in fighting these habitual sins, there is always the firm intention to stop. Masturbation is the explicit example given in the xatechism. I cant imagine anyone arguing that a person who struggles with this need not make a firm intention not to musturbate??? Yet that is the crux of the issue with this remarried debate. If a couple is living together as brother and sister and occasionally or even often fail to live up to this requirement, no one is arguing tjat they should be denied communion when they do repent with the intention of going hone and living like brother and sister. The problem here is not at all the couple in question but the CHURCH announcing publicly that this is not a requirement for communion. In essence, by doing so, the church diminishes the concept of mortal sin, not just for this sinner but all others. I find it hard to motivate myself to go to Sunday mass every week, especially in the winter. Why does my difficulty in getting out of bed or the house not mitigate my missing Sunday mass? If I go next week, can I just skip confession and approach communion?

Funny thing is, a priest allowed me to receive communion during mass, “if I intended to confess right after”, I had made an appointment after about 6 months of not going to mass and committing other sinful things in that time. I had wanted to start going to mass again and receiving comminion and so asked him since he couldnt see me before mass if he would be willing to give me communion after confession after mass? Just a question. Did notvreally expect a yes but just tried coz you never know. His answer blew me away. I knew it couldnt be right. So I went to the internet looking for the churchs rules on communion without confession. Yes! I discovered that I wasnt allowed to approach in a state of mortal sin even if I had made an act of perfect contrition UNLESS there was an emergency-danger of dying, no posdibility of confession, situation. That really put me off that parish. A priest was telling me to receive communion after a 6 month hiatus from the life of the church without confession first??? How is that acceptable?? No…a slippery slope is not all inconceivable to me at all given what is going on in the church.
 
No, it does not. It has not been established as doctrine that it is impossible for a person in an irregular situation, who is still in a state of grace, though in a state of objective adultery, to receive communion. The law of non-contradiction only applies when the condition that is contradicted is exactly the same. A thing cannot be both x and not x, but x must be the exactly the same.

I really thing Pope Francis understands this.

The family synod rejected those who wanted communion opened for the divorced and remarried across the board, but it also rejected those that wanted it defined as *doctrine *that such a one was forbidden from communion. Yes, this was one thing pushed for by a few and the synod.
It was Pope John Paul II and BXVI who taught the matter as a doctrine, no one else. People who say no are opposed to their teaching, not ours. These popes were absolutely clear.

The synod did no such thing. The pope chose 10 men who drafted the questions that they and the pope wanted voted on and left out what they did not want voted on. The rest of the synod had no choice but to vote on that particular draft. No point was put across that asked the synod whether the remarried should receive without a declaration of annullment or confession. None! And so they never voted on this question. It was the political machinations of the conduct of this synod from the Holy Father’s appointees, presumably acting on his instructions, that utterly shook my trust that the church was the church. Man, you just reminded me of that ghastly year. Pope John Paul II explictly taught that this practice was forbidden. No actually. Not “forbidden” but IMPOSSIBLE. His exact words. The church had taught the same for millenia. The synod did NOT teach that it was not “not forbidden/impissible” anymore. So is JP II’s teaching in Familiaris Consortio over-ridden by a synod that did not contradict him??? Just asking.

The law of non-contradiction is definitely in play here. Impossible or possible? Either we believe a second marriage while a first valid one subsists is adulterous or we dont. If not that then either we believe we are bound to live as if Jesus’ teaching is true or we are not so bound. Is practice free from truth? Does truth matter? Perhaps like protestants we can believe but no do, perhaps faith alone matters. Except we insist that only the faith of the remarried saves THEM, while the rest of us sinners still need to live our faith and work out our salvation with fear and trembling while the remarried are exempted.

If the church is the church, this period and its innovations will not only be undone in the future but its proponents will be consined to the same corner of our history as Arius, Nestorius, Honorius and the rest. If the church is not the church, and adultery can be adultery and not adultery at once, then I will be a happy Buddhist. At least that will allow me to believe that Jesus was a great enlightened one teaching in the traditions of the judaeic world. 🤷
 
graciew–I will attempt to help in an understanding of anamnesis. The way it is presented by Ratzinger in his essay Conscience and Truth does assume some understanding of philosophy, particularly from Plato to Aquinas. I recall your mentioning Aquinas. So…

In Plato’s Meno, Socrates concludes that virtue is knowledge. As such, it is objective, even absolute. But Plato also believed in reincarnation and maintained that wisdom and knowledge gained during past lives could be recalled from memory. This is anamnesis, or the recollection of the past, as Plato uses the term. “Do this in memory of me” would be an example of anamnesis in its more customary modern usage.

Although Plato believed in reincarnation, he does not limit understanding to recollection. However, when he does speak of memory as a recollection of knowledge from past lives, it of course is not the voice inscribed by God that man hears in his heart (CCC 1776). This is the essential difference in the way Plato and Ratzinger use the word anamnesis. From Ratzinger’s essay:

“At this point, the whole radicality of today’s dispute over ethics and conscience, its center, becomes plain. It seems to me that the parallel in the history of thought is the quarrel between Socrates-Plato and the sophists in which the fateful decision between two fundamental positions has been rehearsed. There is, on the one hand, the position of confidence in man’s capacity for [objective] truth. On the other, there is a worldview in which man alone sets standards for himself [subjective]”.

This ancient dispute, which Ratzinger explains continues right up to the present day, contrasts man’s capacity for objectively knowing truth, or the good, against the idea that man sets standards for himself, i.e., that ethics (truth, virtue) is subjective. Ratzinger uses Plato’s theory of recollection only as an analogy to explain that the voice one hears in one’s heart (that is, the voice heard in the conscience) is (in a sense and only a sense), a “recollection” not from past lives but from the law inscribed by God on man’s heart. This truth is thus innate and an aspect of man’s nature. It is in this way that a person naturally knows right from wrong, and he knows it from the voice heard in his heart. It is of course not literally a voice but a feeling, like an intuition, its meaning understood by the intellect. And in this way even a six-year old can know right from wrong. Since moral law is inscribed by God on the heart is why “a person must obey the certain judgment of conscience” (CCC 1800) even when it is contrary to formal teaching or even against ecclesiastical authority. It cannot err. Only man can err.

The formulation is idiosyncratic, or unique, in that objective (in this case absolute) truth is subjectively known in man’s heart. With a study of philosophy from Plato to Aquinas, the terms used are more easily understood, but even an understanding of the meaning of Objective and Subjective would probably suffice. There are two main threads, or modes of thought–from Plato to Augustine and from Aristotle to Aquinas. But this is getting way ahead of ourselves.
Thank you,Thomas!
I read Blue’s and yours and I will be reading Truth and Conscience again. As both your posts again.
The objective and subjective is fairly clear.

I also went to our discussions in 2015 and found that I had already shared the Dallas 1991 with you.
There is this also from Ratzinger which is also beautiful to read ,it’ s short.
The centenary of Newmn s death

thepapalvisit.org.uk/Cardinal-Newman/The-Popes-on-Newman/Pope-Benedict-XVI-on-Newman

First centenary of the Death of Cardinal John Henry Newman

28 April 1990

Presentation by Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger:

It was from Newman that we learned to understand the primacy of the Pope. Freedom of conscience, Newman told us, is not identical with the right “to dispense with conscience, to ignore a Lawgiver and Judge, to be independent of unseen obligations”. Thus, conscience in its true sense is the bedrock of Papal authority; its power comes from revelation that completes natural conscience, which is imperfectly enlightened, and “the championship of the Moral Law and of conscience is its raison d’être”. … This teaching on conscience has become ever more important for me in the continued development of the Church and the world.

Newman had become a convert as a man of conscience; it was his conscience that led him out of the old ties and securities into the world of Catholicism, which was difficult and strange for him. But this way of conscience is everything except a way of self-sufficient subjectivity: it is a way of obedience to objective truth.

Newman’s teaching on the development of doctrine … I regard along with his doctrine on conscience as his decisive contribution to the renewal of theology.

The characteristic of the great Doctor of the Church, it seems to me, is that he teaches not only through his thought and speech but also by his life, because within him, thought and life are interpenetrated and defined. If this is so, then Newman belongs to the great teachers of the Church, because he both touches our hearts and enlightens our thinking.
Code:
                               -----------------------------------
Anyway,work and dialogue in progress.
We ll keep it in our hearts,as Mary did.
The beauty is also he became Pope in 2005…
Thanks again for the time to write long answers,Blue and you,Thomas.
 
It was Pope John Paul II and BXVI who taught the matter as a doctrine, no one else. People who say no are opposed to their teaching, not ours. These popes were absolutely clear.

The synod did no such thing. The pope chose 10 men who drafted the questions that they and the pope wanted voted on and left out what they did not want voted on. The rest of the synod had no choice but to vote on that particular draft. No point was put across that asked the synod whether the remarried should receive without a declaration of annullment or confession. None! And so they never voted on this question. It was the political machinations of the conduct of this synod from the Holy Father’s appointees, presumably acting on his instructions, that utterly shook my trust that the church was the church. Man, you just reminded me of that ghastly year. Pope John Paul II explictly taught that this practice was forbidden. No actually. Not “forbidden” but IMPOSSIBLE. His exact words. The church had taught the same for millenia. The synod did NOT teach that it was not “not forbidden/impissible” anymore. So is JP II’s teaching in Familiaris Consortio over-ridden by a synod that did not contradict him??? Just asking.

The law of non-contradiction is definitely in play here. Impossible or possible? Either we believe a second marriage while a first valid one subsists is adulterous or we dont. If not that then either we believe we are bound to live as if Jesus’ teaching is true or we are not so bound. Is practice free from truth? Does truth matter? Perhaps like protestants we can believe but no do, perhaps faith alone matters. Except we insist that only the faith of the remarried saves THEM, while the rest of us sinners still need to live our faith and work out our salvation with fear and trembling while the remarried are exempted.

If the church is the church, this period and its innovations will not only be undone in the future but its proponents will be consined to the same corner of our history as Arius, Nestorius, Honorius and the rest. If the church is not the church, and adultery can be adultery and not adultery at once, then I will be a happy Buddhist. At least that will allow me to believe that Jesus was a great enlightened one teaching in the traditions of the judaeic world. 🤷
Thank you!

I am converting to Judaism.
 
Dominicans, as a young man I lived with their seminarians and professors for 5 years or so while pursuing my studies, majoring in Aquinas.
It was a real hothouse, usual uni studies by day, endless theological debates with the seminarians at home as well as with residing professors there in the evenings over a glass of spirits. Chivas Regal was a favorite, I only drank coffee and beer…far too innocent then. They were always challenging, thinking outside the square, but within the Church. They had their personal eccentricities, but fond memories and formed friendships with some great priests and mentors.
This is awesome…Must have been an amazing experience…and a time of much growth and fun.
Thanks for sharing !
 
It was Pope John Paul II and BXVI who taught the matter as a doctrine, no one else. People who say no are opposed to their teaching, not ours. These popes were absolutely clear.

The synod did no such thing. The pope chose 10 men who drafted the questions that they and the pope wanted voted on and left out what they did not want voted on. The rest of the synod had no choice but to vote on that particular draft. No point was put across that asked the synod whether the remarried should receive without a declaration of annullment or confession. None! And so they never voted on this question. It was the political machinations of the conduct of this synod from the Holy Father’s appointees, presumably acting on his instructions, that utterly shook my trust that the church was the church. Man, you just reminded me of that ghastly year. Pope John Paul II explictly taught that this practice was forbidden. No actually. Not “forbidden” but IMPOSSIBLE. His exact words. The church had taught the same for millenia. The synod did NOT teach that it was not “not forbidden/impissible” anymore. So is JP II’s teaching in Familiaris Consortio over-ridden by a synod that did not contradict him??? Just asking.

The law of non-contradiction is definitely in play here. Impossible or possible? Either we believe a second marriage while a first valid one subsists is adulterous or we dont. If not that then either we believe we are bound to live as if Jesus’ teaching is true or we are not so bound. Is practice free from truth? Does truth matter? Perhaps like protestants we can believe but no do, perhaps faith alone matters. Except we insist that only the faith of the remarried saves THEM, while the rest of us sinners still need to live our faith and work out our salvation with fear and trembling while the remarried are exempted.

If the church is the church, this period and its innovations will not only be undone in the future but its proponents will be consined to the same corner of our history as Arius, Nestorius, Honorius and the rest. If the church is not the church, and adultery can be adultery and not adultery at once, then I will be a happy Buddhist. At least that will allow me to believe that Jesus was a great enlightened one teaching in the traditions of the judaeic world. 🤷
pnewton said: “It has not been established as doctrine that it is impossible for a person in an irregular situation, who is still in a state of grace, though in a state of objective adultery, to receive communion.”

And you said that “It was Pope John Paul II and BXVI who taught the matter as a doctrine”.

How can that be when it was specifically stated by both St. Pope John Paul II and H.H.Pope Benedict XVI that a person divorced and remarried, though in a state of objective adultery, could receive communion if living as brother and sister after repentance and sacramental confession and absolution, with the condition of not giving scandal in reception (due to the objective state).
 
pnewton said: “It has not been established as doctrine that it is impossible for a person in an irregular situation, who is still in a state of grace, though in a state of objective adultery, to receive communion.”

And you said that “It was Pope John Paul II and BXVI who taught the matter as a doctrine”.

How can that be when it was specifically stated by both St. Pope John Paul II and H.H.Pope Benedict XVI that a person divorced and remarried, though in a state of objective adultery, could receive communion if living as brother and sister after repentance and sacramental confession and absolution, with the condition of not giving scandal in reception (due to the objective state).
Because nobody is arguing the matter of a couple that is living as brother and sister. Who here has a debate about that? The issue has to do precisely with the matter where the couple is NOT required to commit to living as brother and sister before they can approach communion which is what John Paul II taught MUST be the case. The matter is those who now claim a couple can keep an active sexual life without either annullment or repentance (which would require the intention to live as brother and sister as taught by JPII and BXVI) and STILL approach communion nonetheless. Please read the posts I have written to Pnewton just above.
 
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