This concerns the teaching of a dogmatic constitution. It is a good question whether the revealed truth is in fact ‘revealed’ to mankind.
It is part of the Sacred Tradition, the Deposit of Faith that was given to
I have my own understanding of it, but that is all. Is Church teaching ‘revealed’ to mankind in the sense that everyone understands it who hears or learns of it? I would doubt it
Sacred Scripture is the same, it must be interpreted by an infallible source. Would you claim that Scripture is not revealed truths?
I would think this includes any truth revealed by God to man through the Church, but what might have have been revealed to a saint at some time during the past two thousand years is impossible to say. But Dei Verbum teaches it is very much possible.
Where does Dei Verbum stated that what is known about a truth becomes false? If contraception is known to be intrinsically evil, can that truth become false, in that it is neither the evil is not in intrinsic, or that the evil is, in fact, a good?
And with that, I will be honest and straightforward. My true sense is that rather than trying to understand the teaching .
I understand the teaching, my premise is that you do not.
My proof of that premise is that you cannot take the teachings of Dei Verbum and actually apply it to a situation.
The question about contraction still remains, does an increase in understanding about a truth render the truth to be false. Can what is revealed, via the Deposit of Faith, become false? Can what is known to be intrinsically evil, become false, in that it is neither the evil is not in intrinsic, or that the evil is, in fact, a good?
It is a simple, yes or no question. I claim that the answer is ‘no’.
What is your answer?