Catholic and Orthodox: Best of both worlds

  • Thread starter Thread starter DJLake
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
History proves that to be the case, at least for the First Seven. The later councils which only Rome accepts proves Rome’s claims. Then again, only Rome accepts those other 14 councils.
Edit: How does history show it to be so for the first Seven Ecumenical Councils when not all bishops were on board for all 7 (at the very least, Chalcedon)?

I guess then, I’ll make the point that at the very least, it is not required that all the Bishops of the world agree or accept the Council in order for it to be deemed Ecumenical. Doesn’t more than just Rome accept the subsequent Councils?

Doesn’t all of this beg the question, just who’s acceptance of a council is required to make it deemed ecumenical? It’s certainly not all the Bishops as we have establishes. And it certainly isn’t all of the Patriarchates, since Alexandria didn’t accept Chalcedon (if I’m not mistaken) and yet it was an Ecumenical Council. What is necessary and what is your basis for saying so?
 
They still treated the Council as Ecumenical. Even more a better example it is that Ecumanical status is dependent on all bishops accepting it, rather than a few, or one, imposing it on everybody else.
The majority of the bishops of Egypt and other Oriental Churches rejected Chalcedon though…
 
Because it is not true doctrine, and it doesn’t fit the entirety of Orthodox faith. We can’t accept something even if it sounds good or logical, if it doesn’t fit the overall picture.
Why isn’t it true, and if it doesn’t fit is it because you refuse to make it fit?
East: Archbishop St. Proclus of Constantinople before 466 [Homily 1:3 in PG 65:683B]: “As He formed her without any stain of her own, so He proceeded from her contracting no stain.”
West: Bishop St. Ambrose the Great of Milan (Doctor) [On Psalm 118 in PL 15:1521B]: St. Mary is “a virgin freed by grace from every stain of sin.” Latin: “Virgo per gratiam ab omni integra labe peccati.”
 
Exactly or “universal”. Just how can a council be called Ecumenical when only the West participates?

IMO a council can only be called ecumenical when both west and east participate, one part the western part can not go off on it’s own and have a truly ecumenical council IMHO.
The second ecumenical council (Constantinople) was completely comprised of Eastern bishops (no Western bishops), so how can a council be called ecumencial when only the East participated???
 
The second ecumenical council (Constantinople) was completely comprised of Eastern bishops (no Western bishops), so how can a council be called ecumencial when only the East participated?
I believe the answer to that is it became ecumenical when the Pope eventually accepted it since it would then become binding on the West.
 
Yes. Well, they eventually left the Chalcedonian Church so their acceptance is no longer required.
But couldn’t Catholics turn right around and use this same argument against the Eastern Orthodox that you are using against the Oriental Orthodox?

We would agree, if I’m not mistaken, with your sentence above. But it seems like you are wanting to say that once they reject the Council, it isn’t necessary to have their acceptance in order for Chalcedon to be classified as an Ecumenical Council. But you won’t allow the Catholic Church the same leeway you offer yourselves. It seems like you are being inconsistent.
 
I believe the answer to that is it became ecumenical when the Pope eventually accepted it since it would then become binding on the West.
Yes, at Chalcedon, but neither the pope nor Western bishops participated in the actual council. My question was actually rhetorical anyways, I was trying to relay that truth can be found even if one part of the Church is not present.
 
Yes, at Chalcedon, the question I asked was rhetorical but not well-worded, I was trying to relay that truth can be found even if one part of the Church is not present, does that make sense.
Yes. Actually your first post makes sense in the context of the quote that you replied to. That was my fault.
 
Yes. Actually your first post makes sense in the context of the quote that you replied to. That was my fault.
You threw me for a loop, but I finally realized what I meant when I wrote that post (I must be tired), I meant simply that the second ecumenical council would not have been an ecumenical council according to his standards, irregardless of the Pope eventually approving it.

p.s. One should ask (I refer to the Orthodox poster) why the Pope did, if there were no Western bishops present?
 
Exactly or “universal”. Just how can a council be called Ecumenical when only the West participates?

IMO a council can only be called ecumenical when both west and east participate, one part the western part can not go off on it’s own and have a truly ecumenical council IMHO.
The 15th-century Council of Florence, which did have both eastern and western participation, considered itself to be the 9th ecumenical council. The next council, at the Lateran several decades later, also considered itself ecumenical … presumably under the theory that the East had placed itself outside of the church by rejecting Florence. (Please note the similarity with the Oriental Orthodox placing themselves outside of the church by rejecting Chalcedon.)

But in the mid-16th century, 8 earlier western councils were added en masse to the “official” list of ecumenical councils (and Florence was redesignated as the 17th ecumenical council rather than the 9th). In my humble opinion, this was an extreme unwise move.
 
I guess then, I’ll make the point that at the very least, it is not required that all the Bishops of the world agree or accept the Council in order for it to be deemed Ecumenical. Doesn’t more than just Rome accept the subsequent Councils?
I think you hit the nail on the head. Both of the easy answers, namely:
  • Only acceptance by Rome matters.
  • All bishops have to accept it in order for it to be an ecumenical council.
    are wrong.
 
I think you hit the nail on the head. Both of the easy answers, namely:
  • Only acceptance by Rome matters.
  • All bishops have to accept it in order for it to be an ecumenical council.
    are wrong.
I didn’t mean to imply that “Only acceptance by Rome matters” is wrong. :o I wasn’t very clear – Perhaps you can clarify what you mean by that?

I think what I meant when I said, “Doesn’t more than just Rome accept the subsequent Councils?”, was that the Councils following the 7th Ecumenical Councils are not just accepted by Rome, they are accepted by Catholics in the East as well (Chaldeans, Melkites like yourself, Maronites, etc.) And that some in the East always accepted them to my understanding.
 
Why isn’t it true, and if it doesn’t fit is it because you refuse to make it fit?
Why should we make it fit? Do we just jam theological opinions into our faith just for what?

It never took root in the East. When St. Athanasius wrote “On the incarnation”, he wrote man’s fall as corruption inherent in man’s nature which took hold of us after Adam’s sin. We went from there, not from St. Augustine’s teaching.
 
But couldn’t Catholics turn right around and use this same argument against the Eastern Orthodox that you are using against the Oriental Orthodox?
Sure. That is why the Catholic Church has Ecumenical Councils after the schism. And they have the right to declare any other council as Ecumenical even long after the council has been convened, which is really how the earlier councils were declared Ecumenical.

In the same breath, the Orthodox can do the same. But the Orthodox has a different view on how a council can be called Ecumenical. For one thing, there is no more one leader of the entire world (although we know that the Roman/Byzantine Emperor didn’t exactly rule the entire world, but that is how they view him).
We would agree, if I’m not mistaken, with your sentence above. But it seems like you are wanting to say that once they reject the Council, it isn’t necessary to have their acceptance in order for Chalcedon to be classified as an Ecumenical Council. But you won’t allow the Catholic Church the same leeway you offer yourselves. It seems like you are being inconsistent.
If one stays in the Church and rejects a council, then that council cannot be Ecumenical. But the caveat here is that you have to survive the succeeding debates on the topic. Of course when a council happens, the bishops want to resolve the thing, so even if a council ends and some bishops do not agree, the debate continues. Eventually, either the decision of the council stays or is overturned. If it stays, usually the dissenting bishops are deposed or themselves leave. That is why you would see in most of the Ecumenical Councils, there are canons that will uphold the previous council. Even with the Seventh, there is a local council later on affirming the Seventh, and only by that local council were the icons actually returned to the churches. Simply, the debate did not end at Nicaea II, but when the dust settled they upheld Nicaea II as the Ecumenical Council.
 
Why should we make it fit? Do we just jam theological opinions into our faith just for what?

It never took root in the East. When St. Athanasius wrote “On the incarnation”, he wrote man’s fall as corruption inherent in man’s nature which took hold of us after Adam’s sin. We went from there, not from St. Augustine’s teaching.
What do you disagree with in the follow excerpts in the forms of “In Brief” from the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
416 By his sin Adam, as the first man, lost the original holiness and justice he had received from God, not only for himself but for all human beings.
417 Adam and Eve transmitted to their descendants human nature wounded by their own first sin and hence deprived of original holiness and justice; this deprivation is called ‘original sin’.
418 As a result of original sin, human nature is weakened in its powers, subject to ignorance, suffering and the domination of death, and inclined to sin (this inclination is called 'concupiscence
').
?

Source: scborromeo.org/ccc/p1s2c1p7.htm#406
 
We do not believe in a transmission of sin or guilt. We believe that man’s nature was corrupted by Adam’s sin and this nature is what we get today.
As pointed out again and again, whomever you might like to mean by “we”, it is not the Orthodox church.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top