Yes, it was settled by two Ecumenical Councils - the First and Second.
St. Cyprian had denied the efficacy of Baptism and Orders not only of the Novatians (the heretics who were the immediate cause of the debate with Pope St. Stephen; the Novatians were also known as Cathari), but generally of all heretics and schismatics. Pope St. Stephen accepted the Baptism of schismatics and heretics who baptized in the three Names (i.e., he did not accept the baptism of all heretics), and also their Orders.
The Novations were not heretics, there were schismatics only. In fact, the Fathers (according to St Basil) considered that the rules with regard to the Novations served as a prototype for all schismatics. Canon 8 of the 1st was given in order to allow the reception of schismatics into the Church by economia, not to require it! By definition, the practice of economia required a canon to permit it. When a bishop choose to not apply strictness but wished, for some reason, to be more permissive he would be safe from potential discipline from the synod if there was a canon permitting the practice. If there was no canon and the bishop acted permissively anyway, this is not called economia, it is call “concession”, and the bishop
might be subject to discipline.
I could quote a number of other canons to show that canon 8 of the 1st was a “permissive” canon, but I think it could be proven by the canon itself. It says, “…let them remain in the clergy, and in the same rank in which they are found. But if they come over where there is a bishop or presbyter of the Catholic Church, it is manifest that the Bishop of the Church must have the bishop’s dignity; and he who was named bishop by those who are called Cathari shall have the rank of presbyter…”. Think about this! If there was a bishop of the Church in a city and also a Cathari (Novation, i.e. schismatic) bishop, the schismatic bishop could not, in this case, remain a bishop upon joining the Church, but he could be made a presbyter (i.e. priest)! This would be impossible if the schismatic bishop was a true bishop when he was still in schism! Do I need to find quotes that prove that to demote a bishop into a priest is sacrilege!
The first Ecumenical Council ruled, contrary to St. Cyprian, that the Baptism and the Orders of the Novatians were valid (see Canon 8). The Second Ecumenical Council likewise ruled on the validity of the Baptism and Orders of other heretics - not only of the Novatians, but also of the Arians, Macedonians, and Apollinarians.
It did not rule anything of the sort. It gave specific
permissive canons to, as St Basil put it, “follow the Fathers who economically regulated the affairs of our Church”. To impose an interpretation to these canons that says that this is what the Church
ruled, first of all, goes contrary to a number of Apostolic Canons, here is a few:
CANON 46
We order any Bishop, or Presbyter, that has accepted any heretics’ Baptism, or sacrifice, to be deposed; for “what consonancy hath Christ with Beliar? Or what part hath the believer with infidel?”
CANON 47
If the Bishop, or Presbyter baptize anew anyone that has had a true baptism, or fail to baptize anyone that has been polluted by the impious, let him be deposed, on the ground that he is mocking the Cross and death of the Lord and failing to distinguish priests from pseudopriests.
CANON 68
If any Bishop, or Presbyter, or Deacon except a second ordination from anyone, let him and the one who ordained him be deposed. Unless it be established that his ordination has been performed by heretics. For those who have been baptized or ordained by such persons cannot possibly be either faithful Christians or clergyman.
Furthermore, it is totally inconsistent to assume that the Church
ruled against St. Cyprian when the very same Church canonized the canon from St Cyprian that articulated his views at the 6th Ecumenical in canon #2.
…This proves that the acceptance of the Baptism and Orders of some heretics by the Ecum Councils was not by virtue of oikonomia.
No, permissive canons do not prove anything of the sort. Trying to interpret them as ruling canons strips them completely from the context that the Fathers say that they were intended. It also forces you to oppose the understanding of these Fathers who were there and attended these councils and were contemporary to their writing, and whom the Church considered were among the greatest teachers of the Church.
…EO today appeal to these few Fathers in the latter fourth century for their modern practice and belief on the matter, but you would think they would admit that the ruling of the Second Ecum takes precedence.
St Basil was very strict in his adherence to the canons that came from the 1st Ecumenical Council! There is no way it can be said of him that he was “preaching a contrary practice”! He didn’t live until the 2nd, but there are indications that alot of what he had taught influenced it. It would be better to understand the canons of the 1st Ecumenical in the context and understanding held by St Basil.
I respect all that you say very highly Brother Marduk, I really do! But if it comes down to your interpretation vs St Basil’s, I’m sorry but I must go with St Basil.
Blessings & Peace!