J
JohnVIII
Guest
Warning: I am about to say some things that most of you are going to think are crazy! You ready? Here it goes.
The REAL root reason that Orthodox can dissolve a marriage but Roman Catholic cannot is because in the RCC this sacrament is done by the engaged couple themselves, and not by a priest, and in the OC the sacrament is done by a priest, not by the engaged couple. Two layman cannot hold the keys to binding and loosing, so really they cannot bind (marry) or loose (divorce). Any priest who has the power to bind also has the power to loose, so in the OC a priest marries and a priest divorces. But in the RCC has can it be that a layman and a laywoman can have the authority to marry unless they are extended priesthood authority to do so! Now can the Church even give the woman priesthood authority? And the man, once priesthood authority is extended to him BEFORE he marries then he, by virtue of the fact that marriage cannot follow priesthood, is in effect self-defrocking himself and the married is void. RC marriages then at this point are just assumed to be valid.
Yes, what I said sounds crazy, but if you all cannot find any flaw it this reasoning then I will lay claim to the fact that this reasoning is crazy but true!
Any comments?
The REAL root reason that Orthodox can dissolve a marriage but Roman Catholic cannot is because in the RCC this sacrament is done by the engaged couple themselves, and not by a priest, and in the OC the sacrament is done by a priest, not by the engaged couple. Two layman cannot hold the keys to binding and loosing, so really they cannot bind (marry) or loose (divorce). Any priest who has the power to bind also has the power to loose, so in the OC a priest marries and a priest divorces. But in the RCC has can it be that a layman and a laywoman can have the authority to marry unless they are extended priesthood authority to do so! Now can the Church even give the woman priesthood authority? And the man, once priesthood authority is extended to him BEFORE he marries then he, by virtue of the fact that marriage cannot follow priesthood, is in effect self-defrocking himself and the married is void. RC marriages then at this point are just assumed to be valid.
Yes, what I said sounds crazy, but if you all cannot find any flaw it this reasoning then I will lay claim to the fact that this reasoning is crazy but true!
Any comments?