God is recognizing or viewing Abraham faith as righteousness. He is being given the term just precisely because that word best describes his inward condition.
Aren’t you overlooking a couple of verses from Romans 4?
Rom 4:5 – But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him
that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 4:16-17 – Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all (as it is written,
I have made thee a father of many nations), before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and
calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Likewise:
Rom 2:26 – Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
No one especially not judges should designate as just someone who is not intrinsically just.
And yet that is exactly what God
must do if He is to save us, because:
Rom 3:9-10,19,23-26 – …we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; as it is written,
There is none righteous, no, not one…Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God…For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood,
to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; to declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
I highlight the later portion because it is important to the point I’m making about God’s justice. Why should God have “to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins?” Why should God have “to declare…His righteousness: that He might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus”? Because God is doing exactly what you keep saying He is not doing – remitting the sins of unjust people, and declaring them just in spite of their being unjust. How is it God can excuse sinners and remain just? Because “God hath set forth” Christ Jesus “to be a propitiation.” He did not allow sin to go unpunished, but rather transferred that sin to a substitute who was punished for those sins in place of the ungodly.
David speaks of one “in whose spirit is no deceit.” This statement is speaking of the inner quality the spiritual essence of the person.
But “no deceit” about what? About the fact that one is unrighteous! Psalm 32:5 goes on to say,
I acknowledged my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity have I not hid. I said, I will confess my transgressions unto the LORD; and thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin. It is as Jesus said,
I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners. So long as you deceive yourself into thinking you are righteous, you cannot be forgiven of your sins.
Paul in Romans 4 shows us the process comprises both the infusion of righteousness into the individual and Gods recognition of that righteousness.
But righteousness, according to everything Paul says in Romans 3 & 4 concerning the Law and its purpose, is not something that can be infused, only imputed. The Law’s job is to show people, “Look at what you have done.” Infuse all the grace you want into a person, and that will never make them righteous, because the Law will still be there saying, “Look at what you have done.” It is only if the guilt for your wrongdoing has been lifted from you, placed on someone else, and punished in that substitute, that the Law no longer has power to declare you guilty. And that is what God has said again and again through the Law and finally through the Gospel. In the sacrifices of the Old Testament, the sins of the people were punished in the animals sacrificed on their behalf – only in a figure, not actually, for it is impossible for the blood of animals to take away sins. But in the great sacrifice of the New Testament, the sins of the people were punished in the Messiah sacrificed on the cross on their behalf – this time for real, not merely in a figure, for the Messiah truly did take away the sins of the people and drown them in his death.
When it comes down to it, it seems to me that all you and I are really debating is which comes first: Does God first infuse grace into a person to make that person actually righteous and then declare that person righteous on account of that infusion – this would be your position – or does God first declare a person righteous on account of that person’s faith and the transferrence of his/her sins to Christ on the cross and then infuse grace into that person to improve that person’s actual righteousness? I have to ask, which paradigm better represents reality? How many adults walk out of baptism or out of the confessional as perfectly-behaving people? And yet according to you, God has made them perfectly righteous, so by all rights they
should be perfectly-behaving people. Whereas according to me, although they walk out of baptism or the confessional with the declaration of “not guilty” under their belt, their actual righteousness may vary depending on their interior condition and how they respond to the grace God chooses to infuse them with. So what I’m saying is that because our sin comes between us and God, God must remove our sin from us
before He can infuse the grace into us that we need to become better people. This imputation of righteousness is what clears the way for the infusion of grace that we need to become Christlike in our ways.