Catholic Answers says Christ didn't have to die for us?

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[BIBLEDRB]Luke 22:42[/BIBLEDRB]

If Jesus didn’t have to die for us, then God would have answered His prayer.

That’s why I think the cross was the only way to our salvation.
 
The reason is has to be that way is because that is how God ordained it to be from the beginning of time. He could have chosen any number of ways to save us. Had he chosen another way, for example a simple prayer, then clearly the Old Testament would be much different than it is now and it would not have had the prophecies of the suffering servant, etc.

His choosing to have to redeem us via the humiliation of the Cross is to fulfill the bonds of love. It is by holding nothing back and desiring to suffer for us that we see the complete love he has for us.

You want to be able to say without qualifier that Christ had to die for us in the way that he did to merit our redemption. The reason you can’t do that, strictly speaking, is that nothing can bind God except himself. But the beautiful thing is that he did bind himself, through love, to make it so that was the only way our redemption could be granted!

So you are correct in asserting that Christ’s death on the Cross was the only way we could be saved, but it is not in an absolute sense as you would seem to want (since nothing external to God can force him to do anything). It is the only way because that is how God ordained it to be before all time, and that is because it was fitting to fulfill the completeness of love, and to show us so that we can be sure of the completeness of love, that he has for us.
God went over the top for me – so what? That wasn’t because of anything I did. That wasn’t because of my sin. That was His choice. Why should I feel guilty that Jesus hung on the cross and died for me if that was purely a voluntary choice and not a matter of necessity?
The world we live in is all a product of God’s choice. His choosing to redeem us, regardless of how he ordained it to happen, was a choice. That is the beauty of his love for us, it is a free gift that he is not obliged to give. That is the beauty of all love, it can only be freely given and not coerced.

If you think that God redeemed us because of something we did rather than freely out of love for us, then that would be a heresy. I don’t think that’s what you mean, but it is implied when you say, “That wasn’t because of anything I did. That wasn’t because of my sin.” It IS because of our sin that Christ had to die for us to redeem, but it was not because of our sin that he had to choose to do it. It is because he loves us that he chose to do it, and fulfilling the bonds of that love required him to take flesh and bear our sins.

I see the difficulty you are having in wrapping your head around this, and it seems that are more deep issues you are dealing with. Be assured of my prayers and I hope that this post helps clarify things a little.
 
As finite beings, we can not atone for the offenses, let alone the sheer number of them. Or put anotherway, it would take us, alone, by ourselves, an eternity to atone for those infinite crimes.
But I disagree with this paradigm because it implies that good deeds make up for bad deeds, and that’s not even true among finite beings like ourselves. What would you think of a judge who, as he is overseeing the trial of the man who murdered your friend, declares, “It is certain the defendant committed this terrible crime, but owing to his many wonderful works of charity, I’m going to declare him not guilty”? Or even, “We know the defendant is guilty of murder, but because a $1 billion donation was just made by a friend of the court in the defendant’s name, I’m going to declare him not guilty”? You would be screaming bloody murder over the injustice. And yet some people actually think that’s how salvation works: somebody commits a sin, but Jesus comes along and bribes God into letting the sinner go free, and the only reason we need Jesus for salvation is that we can’t come up with a big enough bribe on our own.
 
But I disagree with this paradigm because it implies that good deeds make up for bad deeds, and that’s not even true among finite beings like ourselves. What would you think of a judge who, as he is overseeing the trial of the man who murdered your friend, declares, “It is certain the defendant committed this terrible crime, but owing to his many wonderful works of charity, I’m going to declare him not guilty”? Or even, “We know the defendant is guilty of murder, but because a $1 billion donation was just made by a friend of the court in the defendant’s name, I’m going to declare him not guilty”? You would be screaming bloody murder over the injustice. And yet some people actually think that’s how salvation works: somebody commits a sin, but Jesus comes along and bribes God into letting the sinner go free, and the only reason we need Jesus for salvation is that we can’t come up with a big enough bribe on our own.
The assumption here is that our sense of justice is perfect. We want someone to suffer, to be punished, even despite their repentance and good deeds.

Are you willing to reconsider this notion?
 
If you think that God redeemed us because of something we did rather than freely out of love for us, then that would be a heresy. I don’t think that’s what you mean, but it is implied when you say, “That wasn’t because of anything I did. That wasn’t because of my sin.” It IS because of our sin that Christ had to die for us to redeem, but it was not because of our sin that he had to choose to do it. It is because he loves us that he chose to do it, and fulfilling the bonds of that love required him to take flesh and bear our sins.
What I meant was, if Christ didn’t have to die for me to redeem me from my sins, and instead He chose to die as a demonstration of love or for some other reason, then I have no reason to consider myself accountable for His death, only whatever was actually necessary from Him to procure my salvation, nor am I inspired to sacrifice myself even to the point of death, knowing it was unecessary for Christ to make such a sacrifice. Indeed, I would be repelled by such superfluous masochism and would point to any such display as an example of what someone ought not to do.

To put it bluntly, if all I need from you to survive is a pint of your blood for a transfusion, and you allow yourself to be bled completely out so that you die, only the first pint of blood was a beautiful and loving gift – the rest was just you being ridiculous.
 
The assumption here is that our sense of justice is perfect. We want someone to suffer, to be punished, even despite their repentance and good deeds.
No, the assumption here is that God’s sense of justice is perfect – i.e., for every sinful action, God puts forth an equal and retributive reaction. If this is not so – if God can simply ignore sin and treat wickedness the same as righteousness – then God is no more just or good than we humans are, and the Scripture, “God is light, and in him there is no darkness at all,” is false.
 
What I meant was, if Christ didn’t have to die for me to redeem me from my sins, and instead He chose to die as a demonstration of love or for some other reason, then I have no reason to consider myself accountable for His death, only whatever was actually necessary from Him to procure my salvation, nor am I inspired to sacrifice myself even to the point of death, knowing it was unecessary for Christ to make such a sacrifice. Indeed, I would be repelled by such superfluous masochism and would point to any such display as an example of what someone ought not to do.

To put it bluntly, if all I need from you to survive is a pint of your blood for a transfusion, and you allow yourself to be bled completely out so that you die, only the first pint of blood was a beautiful and loving gift – the rest was just you being ridiculous.
I see what you are saying…and you have a good point.

Christ’s sacrifice was necessary to satisfy God’s justice; he took on the punishment that we deserved. That is the position of the Church. Without Christ’s sacrifice there is no salvation. It would not be enough had he just pricked his finger to shed a drop of blood or said a prayer. His sacrifice was necessary.

That being said, one can speculate that God could have chosen to require that our salvation be effected in a different manner, although he didn’t, so it is only speculation. If that speculation leads you to recognize more fully the love that God had for us in choosing to require that nothing be held back by his Son, then great. If not, then don’t speculate about it. The fact is that in the world we live in, Christ’s sacrifice was necessary for our salvation.

He still did not have to do it, just as the blood donor doesn’t have to give even a pint of his blood, yet chooses to do it freely.

The penalty that Christ paid is at the same time abundant for all the sins that will ever be committed by man and necessary for the forgiveness of each sin committed by man.
 
I did hear the explanation, but it was that explanation that led me to shut off the radio and never return. “He did it to prove a point,” is repellent. “He did it because He had to,” on the other hand, is compelling. When the author of the letter to the Hebrews says, “You have not yet resisted sin to the shedding of blood,” he was pointing to Jesus’ sacrifice. But to say Jesus’ sacrifice wasn’t necessary is essentially to give the Hebrews reason to say, “Yeah, but He didn’t have to do that – He chose to – so why should we have to do that?”

The idea that God expended unnecessary effort just to prove a point to us, or to inspire us, actually robs the cross of that very meaning and inspiration, instead turning the cross into a testimony to gratuitous, pointless violence.
Catholics don’t attribute mans guilt of sin to Christ. If we did asprotestants due than Jesus deserved hell fire for eternity as that is our due place. We know Jesus did not suffer hell fire for eternity.

When you look at the cross threw the protestant lens and try to apply it as Catholic concept you can’t but come to the conclusion you are coming too. By not attributing mans guilt of sin to christ it looks to be a legal atrocity which makes God a slayer of the innocent.

But catholics do not speak of the death of Christ in legal terms. Its a personal decision by a loving son to obey the Father in order to provide grace to mankind. Remember there is no greater love than to lay down your life for a friend. Second Christ offers himself in death to appease Gods personal anger against sin. God is not slaying the innocent rather it is Christ who volutarilt offers himself up to the Father as a act of love for mankind…

There is quite a difference between shedding the innocent blood of an involuntary victim(egkDeut 19:1-10, 1 sam 19:5; Psalm 106:38 and offering oneself up voluntarily in love for others Jn 10:18, Heb 7:27, phil 2:6-8.
For God to require nothing at all for Adam’s sin, or for God to require less of Christ than what was required of Adam, would have been arbitrary and unjust.
But God does not require Christ to suffer in our place. God requried and requires Love. Remember he appeased Gods wrath. Look at it this way my kids mark all over my TV they deserve punishemnt. My wife sees what the kids do and pours her love out for me makeing my favorette meal cleaning the house. She sacrafices her time and effort to appease their wrath. A protestant would have me come home and beat my wife so my kids get off free. A catholic would see her self sacraficing love and that Love would an appeasement for what the kids have done.

Ill have more later on the nature of sacrafice.
 
e.

The resolution to the conundrum, if we desire to peer into the mind of God, at least as far as He has revealed His mind in Holy Scripture, is mostly seen in the perfection of God. He is perfectly just, perfectly loving, perfectly merciful, perfectly powerful, perfectly holy, and so forth, and these divine attributes are definitional to His being. To remain perfectly just, He must judge sin. In His love, He chooses to judge sin in the Person of His Son, Jesus Christ, who chooses to bear our sin upon Himself. Thus, in Christ, we have access to the forgiveness and mercy and grace of Jesus Christ, but outside Him, we remain under wrath for our sin (both original and personal.)

Peace to you.
Your right God who is perfeclty just must judge sin. A just God would not punish one who is innocent and let one go who has sined.
 
Catholics don’t attribute mans guilt of sin to Christ. If we did as protestants do than Jesus deserved hell fire for eternity as that is our due place. We know Jesus did not suffer hell fire for eternity.
I’m not sure how Catholics recite the Nicene Creed, but I believe one version of it says, “He” (meaning Christ) “descended into Hell.” If that’s so, then Christ did experience death and separation from God, which is God’s ordained punishment for sin. But that death and separation from God is eternal for us only because once we are cut off from God in that way, there is no way for us to heal the breach. In other words, the punishment for sin is God’s cutting us off from Himself, but our staying cut off from God is not an added punishment but rather the consequence of our inability to be reattached apart from Christ. But for Christ, this cutting off was not permanent because He was perfectly obedient to the Law, and when God established the Law, He also established that whoever does the Law would live. Hence, because Christ obeyed the Law perfectly, Christ merited the resurrection to eternal life for Himself and for all those who are found in Him.
There is quite a difference between shedding the innocent blood of an involuntary victim(egkDeut 19:1-10, 1 sam 19:5; Psalm 106:38 and offering oneself up voluntarily in love for others Jn 10:18, Heb 7:27, phil 2:6-8.
Absolutely, which is why Protestants do not recoil from the sacrifice of Christ, even though He was indeed an innocent who was punished in the place of the guilty. Christ volutarily took our guilt and our sin upon Himself and was slain for it. Had he been dragged kicking and screaming to the cross as an unwilling participant, then we would have reason to be horrified. But Christ willingly did what He had to do to save us. He loved us enough to undergo in our place that which we, not He, deserved.
Look at it this way my kids mark all over my TV they deserve punishemnt. My wife sees what the kids do and pours her love out for me maoteeing my favorette meal cleaning the house. She sacrafices her time and effort to appease their wrath. A protestant would have me come home and beat my wife so my kids get off free. A catholic would see her self sacraficing love and that Love would an appeasement for what the kids have done.
So what you’re basically saying is, God takes bribes. He will take an offering of a wholly different kind in place of dispensing justice and let sin go unpunished instead. Remember you can forego beating the kids because you don’t have to be just – you can be arbitrary toward sin and turn a blind eye to sin as if it didn’t matter whether your children do right or do wrong. But if God did that, then He would be no different from us in terms of justice, and consequently not worthy of our worship and obedience. After all, He could not exhort us to deal justly with one another because we could turn right back around and say, “Why should we? You don’t. You take bribes and ignore sins. Why should we not do the same?”
 
We are not compelled to enter it, nor are we compelled to receive grace by faith, but such grace must necessarily be imparted/imputed to us for our salvation. Outside Christ there is no salvation, for there is no other name given under heaven, by which we must be saved.
St. Paul seems to make these arguments quite clearly in his letter to the Romans, and I would offer that it seems be obvious in St. John’s Gospel as well. I am content to remain within the understandings and ponderings of the Blessed Apostles, and to keep at arm’s distance the labyrinthine speculations of philosophers.
Easter blessings be with you.
Paul makes no arguments of Grace being imputed there is however scripture upon scripture to support grace being infused truly changes us into the righteousness of Christ not a imputed cover up.
 
Paul makes no arguments of Grace being imputed there is however scripture upon scripture to support grace being infused truly changes us into the righteousness of Christ not a imputed cover up.
Apparently you have forgotten Romans 4 entirely. I have reproduced it below and bolded each occurrence of the Greek word logizomai, which means “to count, reckon, or impute.”
What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is **counted **for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God **imputeth **righteousness without works, saying, *Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not **impute ***sin.
Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? For we say that faith was **reckoned **to Abraham for righteousness. How was it then reckoned? When he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision. And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be **imputed **unto them also: and the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect: because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression. Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all (as it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be. And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara’s womb: he staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God; and being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform. And therefore it was **imputed **to him for righteousness.
Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was **imputed **to him; but for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
 
I’m not sure how Catholics recite the Nicene Creed, but I believe one version of it says, “He” (meaning Christ) “descended into Hell.” If that’s so, then Christ did experience death and separation from God, which is God’s ordained punishment for sin. But that death and separation from God is eternal for us only because once we are cut off from God in that way, there is no way for us to heal the breach. In other words, the punishment for sin is God’s cutting us off from Himself, but our staying cut off from God is not an added punishment but rather the consequence of our inability to be reattached apart from Christ. But for Christ, this cutting off was not permanent because He was perfectly obedient to the Law, and when God established the Law, He also established that whoever does the Law would live.
Its not hell as we understand the term today its realm of the deas that he decended. Hell is one of those word that has changed like pray and gay. He realeased those from the realm of the dead he did not release those in hell as we know word today
Hence, because Christ obeyed the Law perfectly, Christ merited the resurrection to eternal life for Himself and for all those who are found in Him.
Christ did not keep the law to merit eternal life for us. The law was never intended to save us that was the whole point Paul was making with Abrham showing how God promissed Abraham before cercomsision and promised his inheretants 450 years prior to the law of Moses. Ill provide scripture later.

Ill respond when I have more time on an ems call

So what you’re basically saying is, God takes bribes. He will take an offering of a wholly different kind in place of dispensing justice and let sin go unpunished instead. Remember you can forego beating the kids because you don’t have to be just – you can be arbitrary toward sin and turn a blind eye to sin as if it didn’t matter whether your children do right or do wrong. But if God did that, then He would be no different from us in terms of justice, and consequently not worthy of our worship and obedience. After all, He could not exhort us to deal justly with one another because we could turn right back around and say, “Why should we? You don’t. You take bribes and ignore sins. Why should we not do the same?”
 
Its not hell as we understand the term today its realm of the deas that he decended. Hell is one of those word that has changed like pray and gay. He realeased those from the realm of the dead he did not release those in hell as we know word today
Agreed, but those who were in the realm of the dead were dead and separated from God just as Christ was dead and separated from God. So Christ took our penalty upon Himself. But Christ was righteous under the Law, as Paul wrote:

Romans 10:4-5 – For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.

Christ did the things of the Law. Therefore, according to the judgment of God, He should live – i.e., He was resurrected, and in his resurrection, the righteous dead were brought out of the realm of the dead with Him. Remember, “It is appointed once to die, then the judgment.” Christ was a man just like us, and he was judged by God just like us. Because of our sins, he was cut off from God and sent to the realm of the dead. But because of His righteousness under the Law, and the proclamation of God that whoever should fulfill the Law would live, He didn’t stay dead and cut off from God, but instead rose from the dead and took the righteous dead with Him so that they could dwell in Heaven.
The law was never intended to save us that was the whole point Paul was making with Abrham showing how God promissed Abraham before cercomsision and promised his inheretants 450 years prior to the law of Moses. Ill provide scripture later.
I think I already quoted it in Romans 4, though there is more in Galatians 3. But Galatians 3 just reinforces what I said:

Gal 3:10-12 – For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them.

Christ was perfect in every way and fulfilled the law perfectly. He was obedient to the Law his entire life. Therefore He merited the righteousness that comes from the Law, and because we are in Him, the righteousness that He merited is imputed to us on account of faith. Just as we don’t have to pay the penalty of sin, since Christ paid it for us, neither do we have to fulfill the righteousness of the Law, since Christ fulfilled it for us. In Him we have by our faith the death to sin and resurrection from the dead that He earned by His works.

You might ask, why then does Paul say in Gal 3:12 that, “If there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law”? But Paul is referring to the possibility of our attaining to life under a law, not to Christ’s attaining life for us under a law. Adam and Eve proved that humanity is wholly incapable of adhering to even the simplest of laws: “Don’t eat from that tree.” But Christ, his human will being united in his person with His divine will, was capable of the obedience of which we are incapable, and so God established the Law, with its blessings and curses (e.g., “Cursed is he who hangs upon a tree” – the mechanism in the Law by which our sin and guilt was transferred to Christ as He hung upon the cross) so that He could be both condemned in our place and judged righteous in our place.

None of this, mind you, is any argument whatsoever against the infusion of grace, only against the infusion of righteousness. To be truly righteous to the degree that God will not condemn you, you cannot have ever sinned, and no amount of infused grace can change whether you have ever sinned. It can make you not such a bad person, but it cannot make you “not guilty,” and without that “not guilty” verdict, you can’t be saved. So righteousness – the “not guilty” standing – is imputed to us from Christ even as our sin – the “guilty” standing – was imputed to Christ on the cross from us. Totally apart from any infusion of grace, there has to be that exchange of standing through imputation. Otherwise you and I are still sinners in the sight of God and worthy of going to Hell for eternity. If you want to say that, “No, additionally God must make us good through the infusion of grace,” I’m not arguing with you there. It’s only if you are saying that infused grace is all that is sufficient for us to be considered righteous, apart from having the righteousness of Christ imputed to us by faith, that I would argue. I’m perfectly fine with a “both/and” position.
 
O
Apparently you have forgotten Romans 4 entirely. I have reproduced it below and bolded each occurrence of the Greek word logizomai, which means “to count, reckon, or impute.”
First the Greek verb logizomi does “most often indicate” what someone or something is merely “considered” to be but is not so in reality. The new testament uses logizomai 41 times most of these refer to what someone is thinking as a mental representation of the reality they are witnessing. Take a look at Lk 22:37 Rom 3:28, 6:11, 9:8, Phil 3:13; 4:8

God is recognizing or viewing Abraham faith as righteousness.

He is being given the term just precisely because that word best describes his inward condition. No one especially not judges should designate as just someone who is not intrinsically just.

In Romans 4 Paul is quoting Psalm 32:1 “Blessed is he whose transgressions are forgiven, who’s sins are covered. Blessed is the man whose sin the Lord does not count against him and IN WHOSE SPIRIT IS NO DECEIT.”

Notice that in connection to being forgiving covered and sin not counted against him. David speaks of one " in whose spirit is no deceit." This statement is speaking of the inner quality the spiritual essence of the person.

It’s not just a legal covering David writes more of himself in psalms 51 " create in me a pure heart, renew a stead fast spirit within me."

Paul in Romans 4 shows us the process compromises both the infusion of righteousness into the individual and Gods recognition of that righteousness

I have more but this is enough for now
 
God is recognizing or viewing Abraham faith as righteousness. He is being given the term just precisely because that word best describes his inward condition.
Aren’t you overlooking a couple of verses from Romans 4?

Rom 4:5 – But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

Rom 4:16-17 – Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all (as it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations), before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.

Likewise:

Rom 2:26 – Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
No one especially not judges should designate as just someone who is not intrinsically just.
And yet that is exactly what God must do if He is to save us, because:

Rom 3:9-10,19,23-26 – …we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; as it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one…Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God…For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; to declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

I highlight the later portion because it is important to the point I’m making about God’s justice. Why should God have “to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins?” Why should God have “to declare…His righteousness: that He might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus”? Because God is doing exactly what you keep saying He is not doing – remitting the sins of unjust people, and declaring them just in spite of their being unjust. How is it God can excuse sinners and remain just? Because “God hath set forth” Christ Jesus “to be a propitiation.” He did not allow sin to go unpunished, but rather transferred that sin to a substitute who was punished for those sins in place of the ungodly.
David speaks of one “in whose spirit is no deceit.” This statement is speaking of the inner quality the spiritual essence of the person.
But “no deceit” about what? About the fact that one is unrighteous! Psalm 32:5 goes on to say, I acknowledged my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity have I not hid. I said, I will confess my transgressions unto the LORD; and thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin. It is as Jesus said, I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners. So long as you deceive yourself into thinking you are righteous, you cannot be forgiven of your sins.
Paul in Romans 4 shows us the process comprises both the infusion of righteousness into the individual and Gods recognition of that righteousness.
But righteousness, according to everything Paul says in Romans 3 & 4 concerning the Law and its purpose, is not something that can be infused, only imputed. The Law’s job is to show people, “Look at what you have done.” Infuse all the grace you want into a person, and that will never make them righteous, because the Law will still be there saying, “Look at what you have done.” It is only if the guilt for your wrongdoing has been lifted from you, placed on someone else, and punished in that substitute, that the Law no longer has power to declare you guilty. And that is what God has said again and again through the Law and finally through the Gospel. In the sacrifices of the Old Testament, the sins of the people were punished in the animals sacrificed on their behalf – only in a figure, not actually, for it is impossible for the blood of animals to take away sins. But in the great sacrifice of the New Testament, the sins of the people were punished in the Messiah sacrificed on the cross on their behalf – this time for real, not merely in a figure, for the Messiah truly did take away the sins of the people and drown them in his death.

When it comes down to it, it seems to me that all you and I are really debating is which comes first: Does God first infuse grace into a person to make that person actually righteous and then declare that person righteous on account of that infusion – this would be your position – or does God first declare a person righteous on account of that person’s faith and the transferrence of his/her sins to Christ on the cross and then infuse grace into that person to improve that person’s actual righteousness? I have to ask, which paradigm better represents reality? How many adults walk out of baptism or out of the confessional as perfectly-behaving people? And yet according to you, God has made them perfectly righteous, so by all rights they should be perfectly-behaving people. Whereas according to me, although they walk out of baptism or the confessional with the declaration of “not guilty” under their belt, their actual righteousness may vary depending on their interior condition and how they respond to the grace God chooses to infuse them with. So what I’m saying is that because our sin comes between us and God, God must remove our sin from us before He can infuse the grace into us that we need to become better people. This imputation of righteousness is what clears the way for the infusion of grace that we need to become Christlike in our ways.
 
Y’know…you listened just long enough to get bent outta shape and turned the radio off rather than listen to get all the information or even better yet call in and ask them to clarify it for you. Then you wouldn’t be sitting there arguing about it.

You can even post about it up in the Radio forum and probably get someone on staff to respond.

If it’s really rattling your cage this badly, just wait 'til Monday and then use the info at the following link to get in direct touch with CA’s staff apologists.
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That would make the best sense of all.
 
I was going to put this at the end put I think it is important so you know the my context and the Catholic context of works. Please read all this it will keep me from having to post over and over what we teach in context.

The phrase “faith alone” denotes that faith is the only instrument. While the statement “faith apart from works of the law” merely means that “works of the law” whatever they may be are the only thing that can not be coupled with faith.

Paul never says a man is justified by “faith apart from love” or “man is justified by faith apart from obedience” or " man is justified by faith apart from hope"

Paul in Gal 5:6 “faith working through love.” By the same token, Paul never says “faith working through works of the law.”

Romans 4:4 “to the one working, the wage is not reckoned according to the grace but according to obligation.”

Paul is using the term obligation it refers to a measured compensation which is legally owed by one party to another.

Trent has this to say
(Session 6,naon1) “If anyone shall say that man can be justified before God by his own works which are done either *by his own natural powers *or through the teaching of the Law and without divine grace through Christ Jesus let him be anathema.”

The Chruch agrees with you when you say the Law shows you how imperfect you really are. Once you understand the basis for Pauls distinction between ‘works done under the principle of obligation’ as opposed to ‘works done under the auspices of Gods grace,’ the apparent contradiction will hopefully disapear.

God cannot be put in a position of being legally obligated to pay man for his work. Outsde of the legal framework, however, God can pay man what God thinks his work is worth because God is honest and just. (We have talked about this somewhat) Heb 6:10 “God is not unjust; he will not forget your work and the love you have shown him as you have helped his people and continue to help them.”

When Paul condems the law he does so from the perspective of contratual obligation. Paul is not condeming the law as a guit to and part o faith and righteiousness. Outside the realm of contractual obligation the law as expressed in virtue, fully coperates with the grace of God.

Romans 2:5-10
5 But because of your hard and impenitent heart you are lstoring up mwrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. 6 He will render to each one according to his works: 7 to those who obey patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life; 8 but for those who are self-seekin and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury. 9 There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, 10 but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek. 11 For God shows no partiality.

Because of mans condition, God cannot be obligated to pay any man for anything. Hence we must conclude that the works Pual requires are not those performed with an eye to obligate God to pay the individual with eternal life. Rather, it is presumed that those who “persist in doing good” and who “seek glory, honor and incorruption” are doing so under the auspice of God’s grace and mercy.

Notice the good works presuppose faith in God, as well as an acknowledgment of personal sin. These works are accompanied by faith and repentance, are not works done under the principle of debt or obligation that Paul repudiates in Romans 4:4

As long as you or anyone refuse to see a distinction between strict merit due from obligation and gracious merit provided by benevolence, there can be no resolution to our controversy. (But you have to at least understand our context if we are going to have a dialogue at all).

One more verse to consider.

Luke 1:5-6
They were both righteous before God, walking in the comandments and ordinances of the Lord blamelessly."

The key facet of this passage is the** God is the reference point **in determining the righteousness of Zechariah and Elizabeth. It is not men, who see only the outside, doing the evaluating. But God peers into the hearts and can see good through his benevolence.

I will get back to your post 55 but I want to repond to this post. Im getting behind time does not alow me to post as much as I would like

continued…
 
Aren’t you overlooking a couple of verses from Romans 4?
Not at all

First you dont deny that logizomai does and can mean something that is in reality? Something someone is witnessing?
Rom 4:5 – But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
But he uses David as the example of faith. Its not jsut a belief in God faith. This is a faith that brought him to repentence. And this faith is counted as righteousness every time David confesses his sins.

David was justified prior to Psalm 32, and had written earlier Psalms before his encounter with Bathsheba. Daved was called a "man after gods own heart. We must conclude that David was a true child before many years prior to his sin. And we know this is not the first time David confessed Psalms 25:7,18;51:5, he must have been credited with righteousness on each occasion of repentence.

Only the work of repentance, THROUGH the faith he retained, would restore the grace of God in his soul.

How can this be because God replaced the system of Law with the system of grace.
Rom 4:16-17 – Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all (as it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations), before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Does Paul expect us to believe in the same God who test us with seemingly impossible promises like Abraham, or do we just believe in the “alien righteousness of Christ alone”?

Paul says 4:12 And he is also the father of the circumcised who not only are cicumcised but also **WALK IN THE FOOTSTEPS **of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised."

We believe in the integrity of God that he does what he says he will do. This is the kind of faith that pleases God and it is this faith that allows us to become righteous in Gods eyes.

You do believe our faith pleases God dont you?

Also Paul shows us in Gal 3:7-9 “all nations will be blessed through you.” same here in the passage you just quoted. This quote is not from Genesis 15:6 when Paul says he was credited righteousness. This faith that God blessed all Abrahams desendents comes form Abrahams faith he had prior to Genesis 15 in Genesis 12:3 This faith was a justifing faith. This is the same faith we can posses and be justified. This shows Abraham haveing been justified on more that one account. We must walk in the same foot steps of our father.

As Paul says a “faith to faith” as Abrhams and as Habakkuk in Romans 1:17
Likewise:
Rom 2:26 – Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
All of Romans exspecially Ch 2 is an indictment against the Jews for their hypocrisy. Lets quote this verse in its entirety to get the context

26 So, if a man who is uncircumcised keeps the precepts of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision? 27 Then he who is physically uncircumcised but keeps the law will condemn you who haverthe written code and circumcision but break the law.

Paul contrast the Jews who disobey the law with the Gentiles who obey the law even though they do not have the same written code.

Since Paul is presenting an argument that condemns Jewish hypocrisy, how can his argument have any weight if there are no Gentiles who fit into the category he is proposing to the Jews?

In other words in order for his indictment against the Jews to be legitimate, there must be at least some Gentiles who have obeyed the law and have been considered as “circumcisd” in God’s eyes in order for Paul to use them as an example of people who obey God without the writtn law in their posssesion.

If not Pauls argument agains the Jews would be superfluous. The Jews would not look so bad, since they could point out that there are no good Gentiles to which Paul could contrast their evil behavior

So Pauls stipulation in verse 7 that there are some who “do good work” and “seek glory, honor, and immortality” must have the necessary potential to be fulfilled in order to substantiate Paul’s indictment against the Jews.

continued…
 
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