Catholic definition of free will

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The debate over free will often hangs around what in fact free will is. Some say that it means an agent could have done differently, and some reduce it to just a decision done voluntarily irrespective of whether or not the decision was determined. Is there any official Catholic teaching on what free will is?
 
The debate over free will often hangs around what in fact free will is. Some say that it means an agent could have done differently, and some reduce it to just a decision done voluntarily irrespective of whether or not the decision was determined. Is there any official Catholic teaching on what free will is?
There really is no debate. Your definition of free will either entails determinism or indeterminism. There are no other options. The problem is that most Christians falsely believe that invoking free will solves the problems of evil and hell. It doesn’t.
 
There really is no debate. Your definition of free will either entails determinism or indeterminism. There are no other options. The problem is that most Christians falsely believe that invoking free will solves the problems of evil and hell. It doesn’t.
I was just wondering if there was an official Catholic teaching on what exactly it is. Like if it’s a compatibilist free will or a libertarian free will.
 
There really is no debate. Your definition of free will either entails determinism or indeterminism. There are no other options.
I think there is a serious problem with this statement, because determinism means determined by previous events and indeterminism means not determined by anything at all. (At least, that’s my understanding of the two terms.) Don’t you see how both of those leave out the possibility that the will determines its own actions rather than prior events? Do you think it’s reasonable to exclude that alternative possibility?
 
The debate over free will often hangs around what in fact free will is. Some say that it means an agent could have done differently, and some reduce it to just a decision done voluntarily irrespective of whether or not the decision was determined. Is there any official Catholic teaching on what free will is?
Why do you keep bringing this question up? You can find the answer in the Catechism, Part 3 ( Live in Christ ), Section 1, Article 1 ( Man: The Image of God ), Article 3 ( Man’s Freedom. ).

In short, Catholic teaching is that man has a free will by which he freely chooses to do good and avoid evil or to do what is evil and ignore what is good. He is free to use his intellect direct his whole life aside form the immediate choices he makes in regard to judging what is good and what is evil. There is no " fatalism " or " determinism " or " indeterminism " or any other " ism " involved in any of man’s choices. though you will not find these three terms used in the Catechism, as far as I know.

The whole teaching of Divine Revelation and the Church on man’s personal responsibility for his acts is based on the freedom of the human will.

Linus2nd
 
+JMJ+

I really like John F. Crosby’s discussion on Pope St. John Paul II’s exposition on human freedom. Here’s an excerpt:

Here then is Pope John Paul II’s first and most basic formula for the freedom of persons: acting through oneself. As for a striking example of such freedom, let us turn to a memorable passage in Robert Bolt’s play about the life and death of St. Thomas More, A Man for All Seasons. St. Thomas More says to Norfolk: “I will not give in because I oppose it — I do — not my pride, not my spleen, nor any other of my appetites but I do — I!” St. Thomas More is simply saying in the strongest possible terms that his refusal to give in to the king is not some instinctive reaction that only happens in him; his refusal is rather a matter of his acting through himself. He says “I” so emphatically just to express his acting through himself or, in other words, his “owning” his act of refusing the king. The passage continues with St. Thomas More’s going up to Norfolk and feeling him up and down and then saying: “Is there no single sinew in the midst of this that serves no appetite of Norfolk’s but is just Norfolk? There is! Give that some exercise, my lord!” In other words, St. Thomas More challenges Norfolk not to be someone who is just acted upon and who just endures all the fears that befall him, but to be someone who acts through himself - someone who can say “I” and be called by his most personal name.

catholiceducation.org/articles/religion/re0395.html
 
I was just wondering if there was an official Catholic teaching on what exactly it is. Like if it’s a compatibilist free will or a libertarian free will.
It would appear that Aquinas subscribed to libertarianism.
God does move the will, “since he moves every kind of thing according to the nature of the moveable thing…he also moves the will according to its condition, as indeterminately disposed to many things, not in a neccesary way” (QDM 6). pp. 149-150, “Aquinas: Beginner’s Guide” by Edward Feser )
 
I think there is a serious problem with this statement, because determinism means determined by previous events and indeterminism means not determined by anything at all. (At least, that’s my understanding of the two terms.) Don’t you see how both of those leave out the possibility that the will determines its own actions rather than prior events? Do you think it’s reasonable to exclude that alternative possibility?
Self-determinism is either compatible with determinism or it is not. If it is not, then it must entail indeterminism. There are no other options.
 
Self-determinism is either compatible with determinism or it is not. If it is not, then it must entail indeterminism. There are no other options.
There is a third option because determinism and indeterminism are not defined as opposites of one another. Determinism means determined by prior events, while indeterminism means undetermined. The false dichotomy is in the assumption that prior things are the only things that can determine something. A possibility remains where a cause is free to produce either of two effects independently of prior events.
 
There is a third option because determinism and indeterminism are not defined as opposites of one another. Determinism means determined by prior events, while indeterminism means undetermined. The false dichotomy is in the assumption that prior things are the only things that can determine something. A possibility remains where a cause is free to produce either of two effects independently of prior events.
Your present mental state was caused by your previous mental state. If you argue otherwise, then your present mental state just randomly emerged. To reiterate: there are only two options here - determinism or indeterminism.
 
Your present mental state was caused by your previous mental state. If you argue otherwise, then your present mental state just randomly emerged. To reiterate: there are only two options here - determinism or indeterminism.
Your argument is self-refuting! It implies you are not responsible for your conclusion - which is therefore unreliable… :whistle:
 
I was just wondering if there was an official Catholic teaching on what exactly it is. Like if it’s a compatibilist free will or a libertarian free will.
Why do you continue to insist on putting labels on man’s free will? What is prompting you to do this? What have you been reading or listening to or watching? The Catholic understanding is not determined by anyone but the Magisterium of the Church.and Divine Revelation.

I have given you the one source you need to read but it appears you have neglected it. Ignore anything Counterpoint says, he is not a reliable source. St. Thomas does not say that the will is " libertarian. " And we should not either. Just because Thomas may use a particualr word " indeterminate " in a specific context does not mean that Thomas viewed free will as " libertarian, " " compatibalist " or anything else. These terms have arisen in modern times and need to be carefull defined. Which has not been done here nor in any of the other threads on CA. So don’t put words in his mouth nor in the mouth of God or the Church.

All of Divine Revelation, all of Catholic teaching and Doctrine may be described as being dependent on the free will of man. For if our thought processes and our decisions are not free, then Revelation and Catholic teaching and Doctrine would be pointless. For, if we were not free, we would be reduced to the state of dumb animals, and God does not gove Revelation to dumb animals.

Human Freedom is the sine qua non of both Revelation and Magisterial Teaching.

Now if you want to read a great Catholic Theologian on free will you can read the Summa Theolociae, Part 1, Ques 82-83.

Linus2nd
 
The debate over free will often hangs around what in fact free will is. Some say that it means an agent could have done differently, and some reduce it to just a decision done voluntarily irrespective of whether or not the decision was determined. Is there any official Catholic teaching on what free will is?
Free will has two words the first one is very difficult to understand in determinism framework where as the second one not. The will is the tendency toward performing an action. In another there are potentialities in occurrence of events that they are represented as option in conscious mind of an agent. How this is done is subject of discussion as no one has a clear understanding of consciousness. There is a problem here since there could be a conflict between consciousness and will/determinism since potentiality determines only one action hence having two options is meaningless. In another word it just appears in the mind that there are two options but in reality there is one and another is an illusion. The problem of freedom appears when we are dealing with a situation that two actions are potentially equivalent. This of course disturbs deterministic picture since one and only one action is possible so the question is how the whole picture then evolve. Consciousness plays no role here as we know that it could be fooled, as it was discussed. There is no way that consciousness could evaluate the exact state of subject matter to conclude that two options which are presented are fully equivalent unless one claim that this is exactly what consciousness does when it comes to an ambiguous situation where a decision is needed. A decision is random in the first case where as in the second case it is free. Consciousness of course cannot play any role in the second case when it come to decision since that requires preference, once the preference is in the place then that distort the equivalence hence the decision is not free because two potential options are not fully equivalent anymore. So the question is what plays the dominant role in such a situation if it is not consciousness. This people calls it intellect/subconsciousness which we cannot have any access to it through our consciousness. Our consciousness is only become aware of decision when decision is made. In another word we cannot make conscious decision which is free. Period.
 
Your present mental state was caused by your previous mental state. If you argue otherwise, then your present mental state just randomly emerged. To reiterate: there are only two options here - determinism or indeterminism.
I think it is illogical to assert that only prior events can cause things because I think i can price that it is based on a false dichotomy. Let me show you:

In order to avoid a false dichotomy, you have to make use of the law of contradiction. If you say your position must either be A or B, that may be a false dichotomy if C is a possibility. It is better to say your position must be either A or Not A, because the law of contradiction says that both of those can’t be true and one of them has to be.

With that in mind, a proper dichotomy starts this way: Say you have made a choice. “Either your will was determined or it was not determined.” If it was determined, the next dichotomy is: “Either your will was determined by itself or it was determined by something (or things) other than itself.” If the option “not determined” is excluded, these two options are true opposites of one another because they are based on the A or Not A principle that the law of contradiction requires.

The problem for you is, you keep excluding the “determined by itself” option by asserting that the only options are “not determined” and “determined by something (or things) other than itself.” Your dichotomy is illogical because it leaves out a possibility that the law of contradiction requires to be present.
 
The problem for you is, you keep excluding the “determined by itself” option by asserting that the only options are “not determined” and “determined by something (or things) other than itself.” Your dichotomy is illogical because it leaves out a possibility that the law of contradiction requires to be present.
Given the same situation and circumstances, could your “self-determined” choice have been otherwise? If you argue that it could have been otherwise, then you have to explain exactly how it could have been otherwise without invoking some indeterminate event. Until you put forth some plausible explanation how exactly this would work, you have no argument.
 
Given the same situation and circumstances, could your “self-determined” choice have been otherwise?
Yes.
If you argue that it could have been otherwise, then you have to explain exactly how it could have been otherwise without invoking some indeterminate event. Until you put forth some plausible explanation how exactly this would work, you have no argument.
My proposition is that the will is a cause that is free to produce any of a number of possible effects independently of any prior events. Because there is nothing logically contradictory in this definition of free will, it is a logical possibility. In order to deny its possibility, you would need to show some internal contradiction. Invoking the standard argument against free will doesn’t work because I have already shown that that argument is based on a false dilemma. Therefore, self-determinism as defined above is a real logical possibility. Does that seem like a fair argument to you?
 
Given the same situation and circumstances, could your “self-determined” choice have been otherwise? If you argue that it could have been otherwise, then you have to explain exactly how it could have been otherwise without invoking some indeterminate event. Until you put forth some plausible explanation how exactly this would work, you have no argument.
Your argument is based on the unsubstantiated and unverifiable assumption that all mental activity is derived from physical events. Until you put forth some plausible explanation how exactly this works, you have no argument…
 
My proposition is that the will is a cause that is free to produce any of a number of possible effects independently of any prior events.
Yes, that’s your proposition. But you haven’t furnished us with any explanation how exactly the agent, given the same situation and circumstances, could have chosen otherwise without invoking some indeterminate event.

The “two stage model of free will” is the only model that explains how an agent could have chosen otherwise in exactly the same situation and circumstances. However, in order to accomplish this, the model must postulate that the “alternative possibilities for thought and action are generated, in part indeterministically.”
A two-stage model of free will separates the free stage from the will stage.
In the first stage, alternative possibilities for thought and action are generated, in part indeterministically.
In the second stage, an adequately determined will evaluates the options that have been developed.
If, on deliberation, one option for action seems best, it is selected and chosen. If no option seems good enough, and time permitting, the process can return to the further generation of alternative possibilities (“second thoughts”) before a final decision.
A two-stage model can explain how an agent could choose to do otherwise in exactly the same circumstances that preceded the first stage of the overall free will process. (source: Wikipedia; Two-stage model of free will)
 
r

What all is his “nothing” besides gravity? And could his “nothing” reasonably have been the catalyst for God creating beginning of the universe?
First of all no one has ever been able to detect " gravity, " science has never been able to measure it. And susceptibility to measurement is the marker to physical reality. All things in the universe, aside from the human soul, are material or physical in some manner, even waves and magnitism. All we can do is measure the effects of gravity. That means that gravity may be nothing less than the actual power of God, which of course could no more be measureable than man’s soul.

If gravity is indeed the power of God, then, yes, it could well be the beginning of creation, That is it could be God’s creative act itself. On the other hand, if gravity is detectable or measureable, then it is some form of energy ( i.e. matter ) and could not be the cause of creation. though it could well be the material " contact point " of God’s creative act, it could be the first material thing created by God, which he might still be creating. amd from which every other physical thing in the universe has come…

I find it amusing that scientists are willing to consider a real beginning to the universe, even though they insist it has caused itself - which is a sign of insanity - while they deny a God could be the creative cause. Matter cannot cause itself, nothing can cause itself, that is a self evident principle of science and philosophy, on this point they agree, in principle. Only science seems to make an exception for the beginning of the universe, which is really odd and really arrogant.

Linus2nd
 
The question was, " …what is the Catholic teaching on freewill…" I have answered that.

The answer may also be gleaned from chapters 1699-1794 of the Catechism of the Catholic Church.

The philosophical reasoning behind these teachings may be found in Right and Reason by Austin Fagothey, 2nd ed, chanters 5-7. ( there are 8 editions, mine is the 2nd).i

And in St. Thomas’ Summa Theologiae, Part 1, ques 82 & 83 and Part 2, ques 6-54.
And this is all Catholics need to know.

Linus2nd
 
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