M
mlldrl
Guest
The only reason for bringing up the situation following the death of John Gotti was to give an example of a bishop who applied the canon to a public sinner. The only comparison that I would make between the two is that they were both public sinners. Gotti was a criminal this homosexual man owned a ‘gay lounge’ (whatever that is) which it’s safe to say contributed to countless people engaging in the sin of homosexual sex.Um, no, that is not all you’ve talked about. You compared refusing this man’s funeral with the refusal of a public funeral for John Gotti. I refer to this post:
Hardly a fair comparison.
My question to you is was the bishop wrong to apply the canon in Gotti’s case? If so then when should the canon be applied? If it should never be applied then why is it there? I’d also say that a commentary holds no power. The canon is the law not the footnote.
It also occurs to me that many here who are posting against me that seem to not understand what the term scandal means as defined by the Church. Or perhaps they don’t understand that not having a funeral Mass is not a condemnation of the deceased.
I’ll close by returning to what I said in an earlier post. What is instead of a active homosexual gay lounge owner he was the grand pooh-baa of the KKK. Would you still say there is no scandal?
M