S
Saul.Tentmaker
Guest
I fashion myself as a Thomist.
St. Thomas Aquinas (and I also) did (and do) accept that God’s providence requires a single predestination, whereby God predestines those whom He elects. God does not predestine people to hell, but does love different people by different degrees, and this is the reason there are different degrees of virtue; also, He reprobates some to hell, not by hating them, but by loving them to a degree such that the good He desires for them does not include the beatific vision.
As this predestination and reprobation occurs without violating contingency, as God wills that accepting Him or rejecting Him still be contingent, thus allowing for both free will, and Christ’s death for the sake of the whole world, and not just the elect.
He, before the contingency has occurred, deigned to give some the grace to persevere to salvation, and others He has deigned not to give said grace.
Are there others, on this board, who accept this? Why do you accept this? Those who reject this, and hold more of a Molinist/Suarez view (God gives people free will, and grants grace before these people choose Him because He knows they will follow Him when given this grace, and continues to cooperate with the people after they have freely chosen Him),
why? Why do you think St. Thomas is wrong?
This is not dogmatically defined. The risks of going too far either way are Jansenism/Calvinism, and Arminianism.
Nevertheless, this is an important topic to think about, especially considering its (over)importance in reformation history.
St. Thomas Aquinas (and I also) did (and do) accept that God’s providence requires a single predestination, whereby God predestines those whom He elects. God does not predestine people to hell, but does love different people by different degrees, and this is the reason there are different degrees of virtue; also, He reprobates some to hell, not by hating them, but by loving them to a degree such that the good He desires for them does not include the beatific vision.
As this predestination and reprobation occurs without violating contingency, as God wills that accepting Him or rejecting Him still be contingent, thus allowing for both free will, and Christ’s death for the sake of the whole world, and not just the elect.
He, before the contingency has occurred, deigned to give some the grace to persevere to salvation, and others He has deigned not to give said grace.
Are there others, on this board, who accept this? Why do you accept this? Those who reject this, and hold more of a Molinist/Suarez view (God gives people free will, and grants grace before these people choose Him because He knows they will follow Him when given this grace, and continues to cooperate with the people after they have freely chosen Him),
why? Why do you think St. Thomas is wrong?
This is not dogmatically defined. The risks of going too far either way are Jansenism/Calvinism, and Arminianism.
Nevertheless, this is an important topic to think about, especially considering its (over)importance in reformation history.