J
Jason_1977
Guest
this is all awesome, it’s like a little clinic…this is good…lovin’ it!!!
The Greek has it: 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.Check it out, right? I own about 7 or 8 bibles. I have an NIV, NASB, NASB Inductive Study Bible, and an RSV. On the Catholic side, 9well, we use the same language no matter what I think, but I have the Catholic Study Bible, the NAB St. Joseph Edition, & the NAB. What I find interesting is YES in OUR Bible it says MIGHT in the John 3:16. In the Protestant ones, they vary…
NASB reads, “SHALL not perish, BUT HAVE eternal life”
RSV reads, “SHOULD not perish, but have eternal life”
NIV reads, “SHALL not perish but have eternal life”
NASB Inductive Study Bible reads, “SHOULD not perish but have eternal life”
NOW FOR MY 3 CATHOLIC BIBLES:
NAB St. Joseph Edition reads, “MIGHT not perish but MIGHT have eternal life”
NAB Personal Study Edition: “Might not perish but MIGHT have eternal life”
My straight up NAB “Might not perish but MIGHT have eternal life”
HERE is my question:
It’s quite clear that there are 2 schools of thought on this issue. I know which one I agree with. I suppose there is some sort of LANGUAGE MANIPULATION taking place. If I was a protestant & never saw a catholic bible & a catholic told me MIGHT…Id tell him he was crazy… the same holds true vice versa. We have 2 schools of thought based on 1 word being present or absent in the correct place & that sets a precident. I guess my question is WHICH translation is correct, which one is the oldest & WHY is something as sacred and holy as the bible being manipulated & being used as a tool for manipulation? THANK YOU!!!
I can’t say I disagree with you.Is this about language or the use of language? We all know (Protestant or Catholic) that the Lord Jesus Christ came that there be opportunity to be saved. He who calls on the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ shall be saved. Isn’t this true no matter the translation? Isn’t this the experiences of the Israelites through out their history in the OT? All you have to do is read Psalms and or the writing of and on King David and you get that. So maybe the use of the word “might” is in the understanding of the translator seeing that it is an opportunity given by God to the world, through His Son. And the other is the translator’s confidence that the Lord will do as he says. **Which both are true.**There is the opportunity to come to the Lord, and there is the result of coming to the Lord.
ProVobisI can’t say I disagree with you.
Both ways may be “true” but so can approximations of irrational numbers in mathematics.
In all translations there should be legitimate concerns as to accuracy in terms of current usages of words, or in this case, auxiliary verbs; otherwise you’re going to lead into still another Protestant denomination. No translation is infallible and thus the Church has not condemned any particular version of the Bible. But do keep in mind you are always at the mercy of the translator. Some people believe π is 3.14, some just brush it off as 3 when doing math in their heads. But a mathematician just works with π because he can derive other expressions, equations, theories, and what have you. We have the Greek and Latin in front of us. Most Christians at one time believed in the veracity of one or the other or both. God has given us the ability to think and derive things for ourselves. If we want to just get by on translations, then we always take risks of hearing untruths and our understanding may be compromised. This applies in movies, operas, the United Nations, or the Bible itself. If we are to believe in the whole Bible, then definitely we have to believe in the Tower of Babel and that it still applies to us today.
Excellent point and notice St. John went out of his way to tell us this, or whoever his interpreter was at the time. So it had to be important if we feel everything in the Bible is important.…what I find is interesting in scripture as far as languages used in the new and old testaments to convey the message. is Pontius Pilate wrote “JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS.” (John:19:19-20) in three languages Hebrew, Greek and Latin, so that all viewers, or those who would come to this Cross, would understand, who is on this Cross. And if you notice that these three languages are the core references when trying to understand what was exactly written. But basically the Lord overcame the world, the sins of the world, and therefore overcoming human error is easy for Him.
ProVobisExcellent point and notice St. John went out of his way to tell us this, or whoever his interpreter was at the time. So it had to be important if we feel everything in the Bible is important.
Now I’m not going to be like St. Thomas More and condemn all translations into English but one can bring upon much better understanding if he at least compares (see how it’s derived, etc.) the English to any of those three mentioned languages. Even if you don’t understand any of them at all, here’s a good chance to learn a little ancient language. And thank the Lord that we have enough web tools today to do that.
That said, I know of at least two Protestant radio ministers who are knowledgeable in Latin and Greek and will use that to explain some of the passages. (By the way they are Dr. Boice (who is deceased now) and Dr. Sproul.) Excellent presentations.
This is very true. However, even honest eyewitnesses have provided different points of view to the same accident scene in the same language yet.ProVobis
thanks for the reply
My friend though languages are given so that man can understand, or in the case of the tower of babble, not understand one another. But even animals understand one another, and there method of communication doesn’t change, nor the meanings thereof (Hence recognized intent, and the confidantes therein, to act upon recognized intent.). But man can’t seem to achieve that level of understanding between one another, do to his own desire, in his heart, to get what he wants, from another.
So languages are only as good as the honest use thereof, by the user. …
No, because you are misunderstanding how the word might is used in this passage. You’re thinking of might as it is more often used nowadays, to convey an uncertain possibility (e.g., “It might rain,” or “I might come to the party if I can get off work.”) That’s not how it’s used in John 3:16, however.So does whoever believes in Him “might” not perish but “might” have eternal life (John 3:16) in the NAB translation negate “whoever believes in him” WILL NOT be condemned (John 3:18) in the same translation?
It also is trying to use a business and trade language (which English has now evolved to) to study theology. Computer programming has different languages to perform certain and different tasks. I think we better start learning the limitations of each language in the real (and spiritual and philosophical) world as well.It’s just a matter of grammar, not a conspiracy on the part of Catholic Bibles to distort the passage.![]()
ProVobisThis is very true. However, even honest eyewitnesses have provided different points of view to the same accident scene in the same language yet.
The rest of your post is spot on.