R
Reformed1
Guest
Okay, I have a question about doctrine/dogma and whether it can change or be modified.
It is my understanding that your church teaches that dogma can’t actually change but can be modified. I don’t fully understand this.
The case I am thinking of is the “outside the church there is no salvation” teaching which I believe is considered to be dogmatic by your church.
I’m no expert on your faith so bare with me here but I understand the Church of a century or two ago had a very narrow understanding of this and believed that me or anyone else formally outside of your Church would be doomed.
Now, it is also my understanding that a pope (don’t know who or when) came along and said something to the effect that those who are “invincibly ignorant” could be saved. I also believe your latest church documents refer to non-Catholic Christians as “serperated bretheren”.
So, we have on the one hand the Catholic Church teaching a very narrow interpretation of the doctrine in the past and now adopting a more mild interpretation of this now.
One could argue that the Church changed its teaching. One could also argue that the Church just applies a teaching from the past differently due to the fact that the world of Christianity is much more complicated since the Reformation.
I would appreciate your comments as to whether or not you see this as a change or not a change and why.
Just so we are clear, I am not attacking or bashing but only asking.
It is my understanding that your church teaches that dogma can’t actually change but can be modified. I don’t fully understand this.
The case I am thinking of is the “outside the church there is no salvation” teaching which I believe is considered to be dogmatic by your church.
I’m no expert on your faith so bare with me here but I understand the Church of a century or two ago had a very narrow understanding of this and believed that me or anyone else formally outside of your Church would be doomed.
Now, it is also my understanding that a pope (don’t know who or when) came along and said something to the effect that those who are “invincibly ignorant” could be saved. I also believe your latest church documents refer to non-Catholic Christians as “serperated bretheren”.
So, we have on the one hand the Catholic Church teaching a very narrow interpretation of the doctrine in the past and now adopting a more mild interpretation of this now.
One could argue that the Church changed its teaching. One could also argue that the Church just applies a teaching from the past differently due to the fact that the world of Christianity is much more complicated since the Reformation.
I would appreciate your comments as to whether or not you see this as a change or not a change and why.
Just so we are clear, I am not attacking or bashing but only asking.