J
Jacob50
Guest
4. Papal Infallibilty and Papal Supremecy
From the Church History I read it seems to me that, especially in the first millenium, the Pope wasn’t an ‘ecclesiastical dictator’ (excuse me for the term) but that the Church was governed with councils, local as well as Ecumenical ones. The Fifth Ecumenical Council was even held in opposition to the Pope and a former pope, the heretic Honorius, was even anathemised, because he confessed, in an official letter concerning faith and morals, to the Patriarch of Constantinople, the monothelite heresy. The second Ecumenical council was presided by St. Meletius of Antioch, a bishop in schism from Rome at the time. In a huge fight between St. Cyprian of Carthage and the Pope, St. Cyprian called in the East and won the fight and the list goes on and on.
And if there is Papal Infallibilty, why then was there the need to hold the 7 Ecumenical Councils if an ex cathedra pronouncement of the Pope would have sufficed? Why the 4th Ecumenical Council if the Tome of Leo was already written years earlier? It seems to me that both Papal Supremecy and Infallibilty or Universal Jurisdiction were never universally accepted in the in the pre-schism Church, but please, correct me if I’m wrong, for this are only some of my impressions.
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forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=8984376
From the Church History I read it seems to me that, especially in the first millenium, the Pope wasn’t an ‘ecclesiastical dictator’ (excuse me for the term) but that the Church was governed with councils, local as well as Ecumenical ones. The Fifth Ecumenical Council was even held in opposition to the Pope and a former pope, the heretic Honorius, was even anathemised, because he confessed, in an official letter concerning faith and morals, to the Patriarch of Constantinople, the monothelite heresy. The second Ecumenical council was presided by St. Meletius of Antioch, a bishop in schism from Rome at the time. In a huge fight between St. Cyprian of Carthage and the Pope, St. Cyprian called in the East and won the fight and the list goes on and on.
And if there is Papal Infallibilty, why then was there the need to hold the 7 Ecumenical Councils if an ex cathedra pronouncement of the Pope would have sufficed? Why the 4th Ecumenical Council if the Tome of Leo was already written years earlier? It seems to me that both Papal Supremecy and Infallibilty or Universal Jurisdiction were never universally accepted in the in the pre-schism Church, but please, correct me if I’m wrong, for this are only some of my impressions.
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forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=8984376