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StrawberryJam
Guest
Without basis from the early fathers?An Orthodox couple can use NFP if they please.
How can this be?
How can they do this without patristic or traditional support…
Golly geepers.
Without basis from the early fathers?An Orthodox couple can use NFP if they please.
Start a thread.Without basis from the early fathers?
How can this be?
It’s not relevant to you, but it is for Catholics in communion with Rome. We rely on our Church leaders to guide us in matters of faith and morals. So the guidelines in Humanae Vitae and the CCC guide our actions, and inactions. So trusting the Church and it’s teachings regarding NFP it is very relevent to the OP. This is why you’re having so much trouble with the teaching: because you don’t trust the Magisterium.Our teachers do not teach the same thing. For the most part, the Orthodox leave pastoral issues to the pastors, not canonist. That being said, what the Orthodox Church or any other Christian group teaches is not relevant to the OP.![]()
What should I title the thread?Start a thread.
Please don’t be rude to StrawberryJam. She actually asked a valid question and therefore doesn’t have to be told to start a new thread. Your bone of contention with NFP is that you claim that it was forbidden by the early Church Fathers…although you haven’t been able to come up with evidence of this notion. However, now you say that the Orthodox also practice NFP if they wish. This means that the teaching had to come from the early Church Fathers, since you don’t trust the teachings of the Church prior to the Great Schism. So…how can it be that those who are Orthodox can use NFP if they wish, if it’s against the teachings of the early Fathers?Originally Posted by StrawberryJam
Without basis from the early fathers?
I don’t have any contention with NFP.Your bone of contention with NFP is that you claim that it was forbidden by the early Church Fathers.
Okay.although you haven’t been able to come up with evidence of this notion.
No reason to worry,Please don’t be rude to StrawberryJam. She actually asked a valid question and therefore doesn’t have to be told to start a new thread. Your bone of contention with NFP is that you claim that it was forbidden by the early Church Fathers…although you haven’t been able to come up with evidence of this notion. However, now you say that the Orthodox also practice NFP if they wish. This means that the teaching had to come from the early Church Fathers, since you don’t trust the teachings of the Church prior to the Great Schism. So…how can it be that those who are Orthodox can use NFP if they wish, if it’s against the teachings of the early Fathers?
Nobody has any issue with abstaining during any time, just as nobody has an issue with not sinning. There is most definitely an issue with specifically having sex with full knowledge the woman is in her infertile cycle, otherwise the Church wouldn’t need to address the issue or attach conditions to it.That’s not an action that interferes with the natural cycle. That’s doing nothing. There are no “steps” involved with abstaining during fertile times.
I noticed right away it is a loaded request; it is self-serving and the answer uses circular reasoning. Nevertheless, it is fun to see people attempt to support their positions on issues formed using controversial and/or limited reasoning.My ability to shut my mouth over this is hard to do at this point.
The thread is claiming NFP is an innovation.
The OP opened up a pandora’s box by asking the question, and you all missed it.
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I am asking you to show me how you know this. Surely something as definitive as an infallible statement is clearly defined somewhere.If you have a hard time figuring out which statements are infallible and which are not by the references, you need to ask your priest about it.
Can you show me an official document which corroborates this?For example, the statements pertaining to the Church’s teachings on birth control are infallible.
Hi Scott!Hi Mickey!
Nice to see a post from you brother. I haven’t “seen” you in a while!![]()
I’m glad we agree.When fighting, always let your opponent believe they are winning. That type of pride will always ends with their back on the floor seeing little birdies flying around their head.
No, actually, you haven’t not answered it, which is why I’m still asking. If you had answered it, you’d be able to link to the relevant post – which you haven’t.Already answered, but you’re not listening.
Good! More information is never a bad thing.It should be noted that the above is far more encompassing than what I was discussing…but I’m sure you knew that if you are paying attention.
We know that, and it is simply not relevant to the issue at hand. You’re comparing apples to oranges; i.e., non-action to action. This issue is comparing action to action.Abstaining from sex is a non-action.
Another action frustrating the marital act is timing activity so that the woman is infertile…at least according to the Church.To frustrate the marital act would be to take an action so that sperm* that has already been ejaculated *cannot reach an egg (condoms, bcp, withdrawl, IUD, etc.). Choosing not to have sex does not frustrate anything, because there are no sperm to frustrate from achieving their purpose.
This contradicts what you said above. NOT ACTING is by definition a non-action. When a couple mutually chooses to abstain from intercourse, *regardless *of where a woman is in her cycle, it is a non-action. Nothing is being frustrated. Ejaculated sperm is not being prevented from reaching an egg.Another action frustrating the marital act is timing activity so that the woman is infertile…at least according to the Church.
The Holy Orthodox Church addresses the issue between spiritual father and spiritual children–as is according to Holy Tradition. I do not intend to speak for Joseph but he did not say that he is against NFP. I believe he is saying that a spiritual father may use “economia” and counsel a couple to use NFP for certain reasons or even condoms (ie: one of the spouses has AIDS or STD). Each situation is unique.josephdaniel, you’re Orthodox? You are aware, aren’t you, that the Orthodox permit contraception (i.e., condoms) for married couples? The Church, on the other hand, forbids them. I can’t see how you can be okay with condoms but object to NFP – the act of putting on a condom IS a frustration of the process of conception!
I could be wrong, in which case I will certainly offer an apology to josephdaniel, but it seems to me that his argument was that anything that frustrates conception is morally wrong – and it seems to me he was arguing that NFP frustrates conception.The Holy Orthodox Church addresses the issue between spiritual father and spiritual children–as is according to Holy Tradition. I do not intend to speak for Joseph but he did not say that he is against NFP. I believe he is saying that a spiritual father may use “economia” and counsel a couple to use NFP for certain reasons or even condoms (iene of the spouses has AIDS or STD). Each situation is unique.
Is having marital relations when the woman is in the infertile part of cycle a non-action?This contradicts what you said above. NOT ACTING is by definition a non-action. When a couple mutually chooses to abstain from intercourse, *regardless *of where a woman is in her cycle, it is a non-action. Nothing is being frustrated. Ejaculated sperm is not being prevented from reaching an egg.
No, having marital relations at any time in a woman’s cycle is an action.Is having marital relations when the woman is in the infertile part of cycle a non-action?
I’m glad we agree on that, since that is the subject matter which is being discussed: action, not non-action. So there is no reason to discuss an irrelevant subject.No, having marital relations at any time in a woman’s cycle is an action.