R
Richard_Kastner
Guest
I think that we are starting to talk to ourselves. When you make this statement “So David is not confessing in Psalm 51, he had already done that” you are for whatever reason simply failing to acknowledge what the Psalm is all about.The little story of Nathan is what happens to a true penitant. One recognizes the offense, and accepts it and admits it. David did this. This is the same thing that happens in the confessional. A recognition of the offense, and admittance and a desire to reconcile to God by going to confession.
As has been pointed out, it is God acting through Nathan, when Nathan absolves David. Nathan would not have said the words of absolution without God’s ok.
Again, a forerunner of the sacrament of confession.
Let’s take a look at all of Psalm 51
Psalm 51
1Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness:according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions.
2Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.
3For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me.
4Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest.
5Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.
6Behold, thou desirest truth in the inward parts: and in the hidden part thou shalt make me to know wisdom.
7Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean: wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow.
Why would anyone want to restore the affects of sin?Nope, it is about restoring the affects of sin, after the event of 2Sam12, after David had admitted and realized his sin and Nathan had pronounced absolution.
You beg my pardon? Shouldn’t you be begging The Council of Trent’s pardon?I beg your pardon, dear Richard. What do you mean by “Intention of the Minister”?
Here’s the 11th canon of that council once again.
CANON XI.-If any one saith, that, in ministers, when they effect, and confer the sacraments, there is not required the intention at least of doing what the Church does; let him be anathema.
This canon states that in order for any sacrament to be valid, THE INTENTION OF THE PRIEST IS NECESSARY. Now that’s what this canon says NOT ME. It further goes on to say that if you don’t accept this canon you shall be anathema or cursed. So apparently the CC is saying that the validity of the sacraments lies not with the intentions of Jesus, but solely and completely with the INTENTIONS OF THE PRIEST. You can see the far reaching ramifications of such a canon. For instance if the preists intention is not there in the sacrament of baptism, unbeknown to the recipiant, he is still in his sins and cannot enter heaven. The same would be true of confession. Or how about Holy orders? If the intention is not there of the Bishop in HO the priest is not ordained and anyone who is married by him whether his intention is there or not is committing fornication. The ramifications seem endless.
I’m assuming that you mean Jn.20:22&23I think you do not understand the commission given in John 21 about the sacrament.
Jn.20
22And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:
23Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
Jesus is not giving His disciples carte blanc to forgive sins or not. What He is doing is showing them that He has confidence in them. That they would not release the sanctions put on sinners (Matt.18) unless they saw heartfelt remorse and repentence. Then they could be allowed back into fellowship with the bretheren. Jesus never however relinquishes the power to forgive sins to the disciples or anyone else. That is still and will always remain God’s prerogative.
