Well, I guess I’m totally confused because just a day or two ago in the CAF, a poster said that oral and anal sex were perfectly acceptable sexual behaviors for married people as long as it was just foreplay (not standalone acts to completion) leading to PIV noncontracepted sex.
If that is true, and the Church teaches anything goes for married people under those conditions, then, I guess I don’t have a problem with those acts in themselves, just the fact that it doesn’t lead to godly PIV noncontracepted sex between
heteros. It’s just the “same” in SSA that’s the problem.
How can you say that homosexual sex acts are OK for married people? Is it true that anything goes for married people, as long as you end up with PIV noncontracepted sex?
I’m totally confused.