"Catholics Reject John Chapter Three"

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And is that same word for “a sound” used here:
Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

And here:
Luk 1:42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed [art] thou among women, and blessed [is] the fruit of thy womb.

You are confusing two different words with two different meanings to support your opinion.

The meaning of the two words can be understood by reading 1Cr 14 in context:

9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.
10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them [is] without signification.
11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh [shall be] a barbarian unto me.
12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual [gifts], seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.
13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an [unknown] tongue pray that he may interpret.
14 For if I pray in an [unknown] tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.
15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?

There is a difference between speaking in a voice or using your vocal cords or other means to make noise - a common thing anyone can do…
and
speaking in tongues, which is a miracle because no matter what sounds you make, others hear in a language they understand.

1 Cor is explaining this to us so we are not thinking we are special when in fact we are babbling to no point .

But this is for another thread…
acts2:11 glossais tongues does not appear in matt
luke1:42 haneiphoneisen she sounded/ exclaimed does not appear in matt or acts
matt 27:46 haneboeisen shouted doew not appear in luke or acts
 
Let’s get back to Jesus and Nicodemus. In John 3:3, Jesus tells Nicodemus that man has to be “born again” to be able to enter the kingdom of God. Nicodemus then asks, How can a man go back into his mother’s womb. Jesus then explains what He means. That is, the duality of man, his physical birth (of water) and his Spirit. And it’s the Spirit that needs to be changed (“born again”) Here’s what He said,

“Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be “born of water” and of the Sprit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In verse 6, Jesus reiterates, “Flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit.”

The contention here is about the man “born of water” Does it mean physical birth or does it mean baptism?

I, as well as many Protestants, say it’s man’s natural/physical birth for the following reasons: ( 1 ) “water” here is a metaphor alluding to people’s natural/physical birth, supported by Scripture as per, PS 144:7, Is 8:6-7, Jer 47:2 and Rev. 17:15, which very clearly states, “ The waters you saw,---- are the people, ----- .“ ( 2 ) At the cross, John 19:34, “water” and blood flowed from Jesus when He was pierced. The “water” represents the physical man, the “blood” represents man’s Spirit which becomes “Born Again” upon the belief in Jesus’ Blood for the atonement for man’s sins.

( 3 ) After Jesus said, man is “born of water“, in the following verse 6, He continues to explain the duality of man Flesh (physical) gives birth to flesh while Spirit gives birth to the spirit. -----( 4 ) some say (Catholics) the born of water, means baptism, I disagree , since Jesus continued to explain the duality of man in verse 6. If it ment baptism, He should have then explained to Nicodemus about baptism. Or tell him to go see John for more information about being “born again” by baptism.

( 5 ) There’s no Scripture that even indicates that baptism is ment in verse 5.-----( 6 ) After examining many versions of the Bible, I found only one version, the Catholic Duoay/Rhiems bible that had the audacity to change what Jesus had said in verse 5 from “man born of water” to “man born AGAIN of water”. NO ONE has the right to change what Jesus said. By adding the word “again” changed the meaning which could indicate “born again“ by water baptism.

( 7 ) As a result, Catholics believe that at water baptism, man becomes “born again” and the Holy Spirit is infused upon being baptized. But there’s not even ONE Scripture that supports that claim. In fact Eph 1:13 contradicts that claim which states, “ And you heard the Word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in Him with a seal the promised HOLY Spirit, v 14 who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession----.”

( 8 ) The proof of this is in Acts 10:44, Cornelius‘ group received the Holy Spirit by hearing the gospel that Peter preached , and later they were baptized. They received the Holy Spirit by belief not by water baptism. The thief on the cross got saved by repenting and his belief in Jesus. He wasn’t even baptized, yet Jesus received him.

IF THIS IS WRONG SHOW ME BY SCRIPTURE, NOT BY A TIRADE THAT “BORN OF WATER” MEANS BAPTISM. ED O
I do agree that born of water means natural birth, but born of spirit is also physical birth. This is what is being described, that the physical body comes forth from the spirit. If this wasn’t the case there would be very little meaning in any of this.

Jesus is telling him that one must come forth from spirit to enter the kingdom of heaven. This is why he says the being born again is to come and no one knows from where you have come, and to go and no one knows where you have gone. And then he brings up a very important point, that being born again is to descend from heaven. That even he had to descend from heaven to be born into Gods kingdom.

Then he mentions his name which must be believed. His name means that we are delivered by God. Elsewhere in John he speaks of this as being sent by Gods power. This power is the sovereignty of God, his power to anihilate and create.

Elsewhere I have quoted from the RSV, which seems more accurate than the translation that you quote from. The emphasis is on that which is born, not that which gives birth. If you have been born of spirit, you are spirit. This is the important realization, that everything comes forth from spirit. That which gives birth to flesh is a woman, but that is not the intent of the passage to point that out.
 
Originally posted by ED and Nathan’s response
( 5 ) There’s no Scripture that even indicates that baptism is ment in verse 5.-----( 6 ) After examining many versions of the Bible, I found only one version, the Catholic Duoay/Rhiems bible that had the audacity to change what Jesus had said in verse 5 from “man born of water” to “man born AGAIN of water”. NO ONE has the right to change what Jesus said. By adding the word “again” changed the meaning which could indicate “born again“ by water baptism. **RESPONSE: The only way you can say that is to ignore the examples of the apostles, who baptized with water, and apparently felt the Spirit was inolved too.**Nathan I shouted in capital letters to show me in SCRIPTURE not what you think!. You and I went around the wheel many times over yet to no avail. You very well know what my belief is about water baptism, that is, repentance PERIOD. I also know that the apostles baptized people. I say for repentance, you say “apparantly felt Spirit was involved” Sorry brother! Apparantly means nothing! Show me the Scripture. You can’t be because there aren’t any! Zero! Zilch!
The Duoay also relied on inferior manuscripts,
If so, why does the Catholic church still use it?
and this lends further credence to my contention that the fathers actually did NOT misquote Scripture.
I can’t believe that you are saying this since you had no idea that fathers misquoted Scripture by adding the word “again” until I brought it to your attention in a prior post.
However, since there are so many manuscripts with the words “born again,” the onus is on you to go against the stream and say this is not the correct understanding,
You can’t show me ONE manuscipts that states in v 5 “born AGAIN of water”. Besides if there were such a manuscript, don’t you think that all the bible translators would have included the word “again” in all of the bible versions by now?
especially in light of verse 7
.What are doing playing tricks? I’m not speaking of verse 7, the contention is in verse 5, Jesus said. “unless he is born of water” He did NOT say, “born AGAIN of water”.
Audacity is a pretty heavy charge, Ed, let’s keep this civil.
What do mean by let’s keep it civil? Was that necessary to say? The fact remains, the Duoay Catholic bible changed the words of Jesus. That’s a violation of Scripture per Prov 30:6
Also keep in mind that all of the anti-nicene Christians believed in baptism of water and the Spirit.
Nathan, did Jesus tell us to follow what the anti-nicene Christians believed ? NO WAY! In Mat 4:4, Jesus tells me 2,000 years later," It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every Word that comes from the mouth of God’." That’s very understandable isn’t it?
You can continue to choose to ignore this, but I would see that as counterproductive if you wish to arrive at truth.

Oh yes I can ignore it! Here’s why! John 16:13 states, “Howbeit when He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will guide you into all truth.” When I got born again on May 4, 1974, He, the Holy Spirit, not only changed my life but He has guided me all of these years. That’s why God gave us the bible.
7 ) As a result, Catholics believe that at water baptism, man becomes “born again” and the Holy Spirit is infused upon being baptized. But there’s not even ONE Scripture that supports that claim. In fact Eph 1:13 contradicts that claim which states, “ And you heard the Word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in Him with a seal the promised HOLY Spirit, v 14 who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession----.”RESPONSE: You are somewhat going backwards again. Jesus equated belief with OBEDIENCE, and what he told people was to repent and get baptized. No I’m not going backwards again, You want to start that spinning wheel again. You very well know that I believe in what you say here, that is, repentance and baptism.
Mere belief as you mean it is not enough,
You seemed bent on wanting to argue, and argue and argue the same thing over and over again. My belief is exactly what the bible teaches. Mat 3;11 John baptism is for repentance, and belief in Jesus for salvation per Eph 1:13.
or Paul would have been saved upon receiving his vision from Christ. Instead, even though he believes, he still has to be baptized by Ananias and have his sins washed away.
I would advise you to go back and read Acts 9:17 again, I’ll paraphrase it for you, when Ananias laid hands and prayed for Saul/Paul, he was not only healed (scales fell off his eyes) but he was also FILLED with the HOLY SPIRIT. An unsaved person cannot be filled with the Holy Spirit. Light has no fellowship with darkness. Then he was water baptized for repentance. When a person repents, he’s aking God for forgiveness of his past life (sins) That’s what it means by washing sins away. Even if the sins could be washed away as you think by baptism, it’s not complete until the sins are atoned for and that is by Jesus’ Blood. Heb 9:22 very clearly states, " Without the shedding of Blood there is NO FORGIVENESS OF SINS." Jesus in Mat 26:28, “This is my Blood of the new convenant for the forgiveness of sins.” He didn’t say also by water baptism will forgive your sins too!

I pray that you take to heart what I say here. ED O.
 
Posted by geometer
I do agree that born of water means natural birth, but born of spirit is also physical birth. This is what is being described, that the physical body comes forth from the spirit. If this wasn’t the case there would be very little meaning in any of this.
Hi geometer, I agree with what you say, “water means natural birth” Without out going through much discussion, what I mean is John 3:5 has absolutely nothing to do with water baptism. Do you agree? If so, tell it to Nathan. ED O.
 
there are three baptisms recognized by the latin rite of the roman catholic church those are:
baptism by water
baptism by desire and of course
baptism by blood
 
“I can’t believe that you are saying this since you had no idea that fathers misquoted Scripture by adding the word “again” until I brought it to your attention in a prior post.” Response: You seem to be implying that I believed you, which I did not and do not.

“If so, why does the Catholic church still use it?”
Response: Why do Protestants still use the King James?

“Nathan I shouted in capital letters to show me in SCRIPTURE not what you think!. You and I went around the wheel many times over yet to no avail. You very well know what my belief is about water baptism, that is, repentance PERIOD. I also know that the apostles baptized people. I say for repentance, you say “apparantly felt Spirit was involved” Sorry brother! Apparantly means nothing! Show me the Scripture. You can’t be because there aren’t any! Zero! Zilch!” Response: Ed, I use capital letters for emphasis, not to shout. John 3:5 says water and the Spirit. You have failed to demonstrate that water means anything other than water. You choose to ignore clear words and find a meaning for the text that doesn’t fit. Then you ignore early Christian witness. Whatever man.

"What are doing playing tricks? I’m not speaking of verse 7, the contention is in verse 5, Jesus said. “unless he is born of water” He did NOT say, “born AGAIN of water”. "
Response: The contention is that all early Christians understood the water baptism as referring to being born again. I’m sorry that annoys you. Verse 7 is a nice clarifier of verse 5, just in case you didn’t get it the first time.

“What do mean by let’s keep it civil? Was that necessary to say? The fact remains, the Duoay Catholic bible changed the words of Jesus. That’s a violation of Scripture per Prov 30:6.” Response: Yes it was necessary. You seem to be getting worked up, and are making pretty strong claims with fairly strong words. If you’re wrong, you could be guilty of blasphemy. Hence it is better to be cautious when making accusations.

You can’t show me ONE manuscipts that states in v 5 “born AGAIN of water”. Besides if there were such a manuscript, don’t you think that all the bible translators would have included the word “again” in all of the bible versions by now? Response: Ed, that’s ridiculous. We are not scholars and obviously dont have access to the Original manuscripts. You don’t think the fact that several early fathers quoted 3:5 the exact same way lends some support to this possibility?

“Nathan, did Jesus tell us to follow what the anti-nicene Christians believed ? NO WAY! In Mat 4:4, Jesus tells me 2,000 years later,” It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every Word that comes from the mouth of God’." That’s very understandable isn’t it?" Response: Jesus said those that accept the ones he sent accept him. And so I guess that means we were to accept the apostles, but not the bishops they historically ordained? But then we are supposed to listen to you? Get REAL Ed.

“Oh yes I can ignore it! Here’s why! John 16:13 states, “Howbeit when He, the Spirit of truth, is come, He will guide you into all truth.” When I got born again on May 4, 1974, He, the Holy Spirit, not only changed my life but He has guided me all of these years. That’s why God gave us the bible.” Response: I find your method of subjectifying your salvation typical. Personal experience is not the criterion for salvation. And God didn’t give us the Bible Ed, he gave us the Church. The Church was inspired to write the Bible. The Church compiled the Bible. Sorry Ed.

“My belief is exactly what the bible teaches.” **Response: Thousands of denominations disagree with you. **
 
“I would advise you to go back and read Acts 9:17 again, I’ll paraphrase it for you, when Ananias laid hands and prayed for Saul/Paul, he was not only healed (scales fell off his eyes) but he was also FILLED with the HOLY SPIRIT. An unsaved person cannot be filled with the Holy Spirit. Light has no fellowship with darkness. Then he was water baptized for repentance. When a person repents, he’s aking God for forgiveness of his past life (sins) That’s what it means by washing sins away. Even if the sins could be washed away as you think by baptism, it’s not complete until the sins are atoned for and that is by Jesus’ Blood. Heb 9:22 very clearly states, " Without the shedding of Blood there is NO FORGIVENESS OF SINS.” Jesus in Mat 26:28, “This is my Blood of the new convenant for the forgiveness of sins.” He didn’t say also by water baptism will forgive your sins too!"
**Response: No Ed, let’s not paraphrase. Let’s look at the exact verse from the NIV:

Acts 9:17: “So Ananias left and entered the house. Then he placed his hands on him and said, ‘Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus, who appeared to you on the road you were traveling, has sent me so you may regain your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit.’ At once something like scales fell from his eyes, and he regained his sight. Then he got up and was baptized.”

Ananias did not specify the exact moment when he would get the Holy Spirit, only that he would get it. And doesn’t it seem to you that if Ananias was infusing the Holy Spirit at this point, Paul would have gotten it when his hands were still on him and not after he gets up? It says he got up and was baptized. Now lets look at another verse you are leaving out Ed. It helps clarify the situation a bit.

Acts 22:12-16: “Someone named Ananias, a devout man according to the law, having a good reputation with all the Jews residing there, came to me, stood by me, and said, ‘Brother Saul, regain your sight.’ And in that very hour I looked up and saw him. Then he said, 'The God of our fathers has appointed you to know His will, to see the Righteous One, and to hear the sound of His voice. For you will be a witness for Him to all people of what you have seen and heard. And now, why delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins by calling on His name.”

So the above clarifies that Ananias was not infusing Paul with the Holy Spirit when his hands were laid on him; he was healing him. His sins weren’t washed away until he was baptized. And Paul already believed, so it’s obvious that the baptism was by water. Regardless of Paul’s belief, he was not forgiven of sins, he was not saved. Not until his baptism.

Also, you repeatedly state that blood is necessary. Nobody ever denied that Ed. What you deny is that Paul says that the baptism is what buries you into the sacrifice of his blood. Stop ignoring the Bible Ed.**
 
Nathan Wagar
Hey Ed, I’m glad to see you back. I will respond point by point.
1 ) “water” here is a metaphor alluding to people’s natural/physical birth, supported by Scripture as per, PS 144:7, Is 8:6-7, Jer 47:2 and Rev. 17:15, which very clearly states, “ The waters you saw,---- are the people, ----- .“ RESPONSE: The verse in Revelation is a specific vision, where water refers to a vast multitude, and as such I fail to see how it bears much relevance to the passage in John 3:5. Jesus is not speaking apocalyptic words of symbolism, which is the category Revelation fits into. Psalm 144:7 is as follows: Reach down from on High; rescue me from deep water, and set me free from the grasp of foreigners." No allusion to any kind of birth there, Ed. Isaiah 8:6-7: “Because these people rejected the slowly flowing waters of Shiloah and rejoiced with Rezin and the son of Remaliah, the Lord will certainly bring against them the mighty rushing waters of the Euphrates River - the king of Assyria and all his glory. It will overflow its channels and spill over all its banks.” The above is clearly literal water, Ed, again, doesn’t fit your purposes. Or how about Jeremiah 47:2: “This is what the Lord says: Look, waters are rising from the north and becoming an overflowing wadi. They will overflow the land and everything in it, the cities and their inhabitants. The people will cry out, and every inhabitant of the land will wail.” Absolutely no reference here Ed. The only slight chance you had was with Revelation, and it did not refer to any kind of birth, merely to a vast multitude of people. In all of these Scriptures that I quoted the water refers to people.marching armies coming down to destroy. I would advise you to read the commentaries in The New Catholic American bible who agree with me. You say there’s no birth here, I didn’t say anything about birth. My point is that people are being referred to as water just as Jesus refers to man as water in John 3:5.
Until you can show me at least ONE scripture that the Holy Spirit is infused by water baptism, I would rather not debate and honor your request per post 362 and I agreed on post 363. Thanks! ED O. God Bless!
 
Actually Ed it says in the very post of yours you just quoted that you were comparing them to birth: “water” here is a metaphor alluding to people’s natural/physical birth, supported by Scripture as per, PS 144:7, Is 8:6-7, Jer 47:2 and Rev. 17:15, which very clearly states, “ The waters you saw,---- are the people, ----- .“

Peter said it was baptism that saves you. Ananias agreed with him. You have ignored all the difficult arguments I made that don’t fit your theology. This is another gigantic example of me responding to every one of your points, and you avoiding mine. Good night Ed. Keep studying.

I encourage anybody reading this thread to pay very close attention to all these posts and make up your own minds as to who has made the better defense of the truth. If any of my posts challenge your beliefs and make you rethink things, then I have accomplished something.
 
It seems strange to hear a person say that the words of Jesus were changed. Jesus never wrote anything down except a few scrawls in the sand. The bible was written by Catholics for Catholics and it remained that way for the first 1500 yrs. of Christianity. But then, you see, Luther…
 
To all who have been following Nathan and my posts. Please note the main point of contention between us is, he claims that the Holy Spirit is infused by water baptism.

Several times I’ve asked him to show me the Scripture reference that it says so. Not ONCE has he done so. The reason being because there is no such Scripture.

If there were, it would be a contradiction to Eph 1:13, which very cleary states,“And you also were included in Christ when you HEARD the word of TRUTH, the GOSPEL of your SALVATION. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in Him with a seal, the promised HOLY SPIRIT, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession.”

In plain English, we get SAVED by responding to the gospel, by so doing, we receive the Holy Spirit. Water baptism is not mentioned here at all. ED O.
 
  1. Jesus says water and the Spirit.
  2. Peter talks about water and the spirit in the OT, and how this prefigured baptism, which saves in the same way.
  3. #2 clarifies #1.
  4. Ephesians 4:4 further clarifies #1.
  5. The messianic prophecy in Ezekial says that the God will sprinkle clean water that cleanses the soul. Obviously Ed, cleansing is from the Holy Spirit.
  6. Paul was not saved until he water baptized, not merely hearing the gospel.
  7. The eunuch was not “baptized” until they found water. He was not “baptized in the Spirit” upon hearing the gospel.
  8. John’s disciples had to be rebaptized.
  9. Cornelius was not saved until he heard Peter’s gospel of **baptism **and repentance.
  10. Paul says it is the baptism that lets us take part in Jesus’ death.
  11. The early Church fathers all attest to the same.
  12. Many Protestant denominations attest to the same.
  13. You want to hear the actual words “infusion” which is just a technical term. Much like “trinity” Ed. You ignore that water and the spirit are delivered at the same time. Argue with Peter all you want. Argue with Paul all you want. Argue with Jesus all you want. Argue with all the early Christians all you want. Keep separating water and Spirit in violation of Ephesians 4:4, and adding your words to Scripture. Go ahead and ask your Pastor for his version of the truth. Your arguments are increasingly ridiculous, and lead in circles, because you inevitably ignore the points I make that you can’t answer. That is recorded fact all through the thread. Don’t bother answering these points, because they are merely a summary. I have already discussed them above and you ignored them there too. Live in ignorance if you wish.
 
To all who who have been watching Nathan’s and my posts. Please note, I’ve asked him several times to show me the Scripture that indicates water baptism infusions the Holy Spirit. He never does so.

One of his methods in debating is to produce many statements or verses which at times looses the point of contention. And by doing so, please note he failed to respond to Eph.1:13.

Since he can’t produce any one Scripture that indicates that the Holy Spirit is infused by water baptism, I will ask him in this manner: Eph 1:13," And you also were included in Christ when you HEARD the word of TRUTH, the GOSPEL of your SALVATION. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in him with a SEAL the promised HOLY SPIRIT."

Nathan, please answer Yes or No, Am I saved here?

ED O.
 
No. Because your definition of belief is mental assent to the gospel. Jesus’ definition of belief is obedience. Jesus said to be baptized, as did his apostles say to be baptized. You are not saved until you are baptized. The Holy Spirit never comes salvificly before water when it is a man administering the baptism. Even God only did it in a few cases for specific instances (thief on the cross, Mary); this option is not open to us.

All my verses are quoted fully and in context; yours frequently are only partially referenced and do not support your case. I pointed this out quite nicely earlier. My verses have direct bearing on my point. Saul had his sins washed away at baptism, not belief (as you define belief). Jesus said water and the spirit. Then I gave my interpretation: this means infusion. Then I showed how the apostles interpreted it. Then I gave examples of how passages in Acts support my interpretation, and specifically not yours (which you ignored). Then I showed the early fathers. You ignored them too. You ignored the Old Testament prophecies and typology, you ignored just about everything possible to ignore, Ed, and yet you want to make accusations that I have not stated my case? Maybe if you were a bit less preoccupied with your own response to what you think I’m saying, you would actually pay attention and allow the implications to sink in. Or worse, you are reading and understanding it, and merely ignoring it because it doesn’t fit your theology. Either way, Ed, very dishonest.

The simple fact is I respond to every one of your arguments Ed. You don’t do the same. You have no answers for crucial issues I have raised. Your theology ignores aspects of the Bible in favor of others, mine does not. I have proven this over and over through the thread, which remains largely ignored by you. This is an unproductive debate, and you need to work a bit harder at your efforts to construct a meaningful argument. I enjoy being challeneged, Ed, but you apparently aren’t the one to do that.
 
To all who have been following Nathan and my posts. Please note the main point of contention between us is, he claims that the Holy Spirit is infused by water baptism.

Several times I’ve asked him to show me the Scripture reference that it says so. Not ONCE has he done so. The reason being because there is no such Scripture.

If there were, it would be a contradiction to Eph 1:13, which very cleary states,“And you also were included in Christ when you HEARD the word of TRUTH, the GOSPEL of your SALVATION. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in Him with a seal, the promised HOLY SPIRIT, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession.”

In plain English, we get SAVED by responding to the gospel, by so doing, we receive the Holy Spirit. Water baptism is not mentioned here at all. ED O.
infused by the holy spirit at baptism is trckery employeed by martin luther to denounce the need for bishops, the missouri synod sola scriptura lutheran church teaches two sacraments , baptism and non transubstantial eucharist because if you roll confirmation up in the sacrament of baptism and take the transubstantiation out of the eucharist you eliminate the need for apostolic succession, bishops and the church.

so the moral is…dont be a lutheran
 
Luther believed in baptismal regeneration, but did not believe in infused grace. He believed in imputed grace.
 
To all who who have been watching Nathan’s and my posts. Please note, I’ve asked him several times to show me the Scripture that indicates water baptism infusions the Holy Spirit. He never does so.

One of his methods in debating is to produce many statements or verses which at times looses the point of contention. And by doing so, please note he failed to respond to Eph.1:13.

Since he can’t produce any one Scripture that indicates that the Holy Spirit is infused by water baptism, I will ask him in this manner: Eph 1:13," And you also were included in Christ when you HEARD the word of TRUTH, the GOSPEL of your SALVATION. Having BELIEVED, you were marked in him with a SEAL the promised HOLY SPIRIT."

Nathan, please answer Yes or No, Am I saved here?

ED O.
I actually haven’t been following, I just jumped here to see what was being said. Really, Nathan has not provided one scripture? Or not one scripture whose interpretation you believe?

I have to be honest while I am interested in reading this entire thread, I found Nathan’s posts difficult to follow without proper quoting. But I do find it hard to believe that Nathan has not posted on piece of scripture, but rather you just choose to disagree as to the meaning of the scripture.
 
Maria,

I think if you read the entire thread, you will be pleasantly surprised by the amount of Scripture I quote in entirety 🙂

My arguments are probably hard to follow because I tend to repeat myself so often with Ed that I don’t bother to requote, because he already knows what I’m talking about.

God Bless
 
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