(ContinuedâŚ)
You are free to show how I am wrong.
Ok, I will. But considering my lack of Greek skills, here how I will do itâŚ
Theory #1: The Traditional Interpretation of Mark 16:9 and its Implication
The Greek phrase âproi prote sabbatouâ means, âearly morning of the first day of the week.â
If this is a correct translation of the Greek, we should see widespread agreement among Christians. In fact, we see
universal agreement among Catholics, Protestants, the various Eastern Orthodox Christians and the various Oriental Orthodox Christians.
Theory #2: Your Interpretation of Mark 16:9 and its Implications
âThe Greek phrase âproi prote sabbatouâ is better rendered âearly morning of the chief sabbathâ rather than the generally accepted âearly morning of the first day of the weekâ.â (
Post #1). According to you, Jesus rose from the dead on a Saturday, not a Sunday.
As I pointed out in
Post #133,
all the various Churches which grew from the original 19 Apostolic Sees (which includes the Catholic Church, all the various Eastern Orthodox Churches and all the various Oriental Orthodox Churches) have taught that Jesus rose from the dead on a Sunday, and proclaim this to be a doctrine with apostolic origins. Therefore, if your interpretation of Mark 16:9 is correct then here are the implications:
1) The belief that Jesus rose from the dead on a Sunday had to be a false doctrine fabricated by someone within one of the 19 Apostolic Sees. Because St. Ignatius specifically states that Christians âwere no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lordâs Day, on which also our life has sprung up again by Him and by His deathâ
(Letter to the Magnesians, 9:1) this means that this doctrine had to be fabricated no later than A.D. 110. This false doctrine would then have had to quickly spread throughout its own Apostolic See, and then spread to, and be accepted by,
all of the other 18 Apostolic Sees spread out over
three continents.
2) As we can see in the NT and the writings of the ECFs, doctrinal disputes happened almost immediately in the Ancient Church. But if the Sunday Resurrection doctrine is false, there is no record of it ever having been debated by the ancient Christians.
3) One of the elements of the Protestant Reformation was the belief that many doctrines taught by the Church were not apostolic in origin, but rather created by men. The Reformers examined the NT in Greek, and rejected any doctrine that could not be proven from its text. But whereas the Reformers debated one another concerning many theological notions, they
all taught that Jesus rose from the dead on a Sunday, and affirmed that Christians are to observe the Sabbath on Sundays. In light of this, if your translation of Mark 16:9 is correct then this means that, a) All the Reformers somehow missed examining Mark 16:9, or, b) All the Reformers decided to buy into the false Sunday Resurrection teaching, and therefore purposely fail to live up to the very principle the Reformation was supposed to address.
4) As I mentioned earlier, we have no original text of any book of the Bible, but only copies of copies of copies, and so forth. If your translation of Mark 16:9 is correct, and that âproi prote sabbatouâ does not properly render the expression, âearly morning of the first day of the weekâ, then the Sunday-keeping scribes who copied Mark knew it. So even though the forces in the Church were willing to intentionally teach people an incorrect rendering of Mark 16:9, they decided to have the scribes continue to write âproi prote sabbatouâ rather than something else which would better express the Sunday Resurrection doctrine. So on one hand, they were unorthodox enough to teach people a false doctrine (which would make people fail to properly observe the Sabbath) but, on the other hand, they were orthodox enough not to change what was written in the Bible.
Question:
Why have the vast majority of Christians consistently translated âproi prote sabbatouâ as âearly morning of the first day of the weekâ for some 2000 years?
According to
Theory #1, the answer is,
âBecause thatâs exactly what the Greek says.â
According to
Theory #2, the answer (basically) is,
âBecause there has been a worldwide effort to intentionally mistranslate Mark 16:9. This is a conspiracy which has encompassed all the Scripture scholars belonging to the Catholic Church, all the Eastern Orthodox Churches, all the Oriental Orthodox Churches, and all the Protestant denominations. Moreover, this conspiracy arose prior to A.D. 110, and then quickly encompassed all the Apostolic Sees spread out over three continents in the ancient world.â
Now, while contemplating these two theories, I apply the philosophical principle of Ockhamâs Razor, namely:
When examining competing explanations that make the same conclusion, the simplest explanation (i.e., the most obvious, or the one that makes the fewest assumptions) should be deemed the most plausible until proven wrong..
It goes without saying that, in this regard, Theory #1 beats Theory #2 hands down.
However, if you disagree, and think Theory #2 is the most plausible, then clearly demonstrate how in a reasonable manner. Because the way I see it now, I cannot accept your interpretation of Mark 16:9 as being valid without likewise accepting a conspiracy theory of a magnitude that absolutely boggles the imagination.