What do you mean by debatable? When I hear that word, one definition that comes to mind is: there are comparable levels of evidence on both sides. Is that what you mean? Because I think there is
tons of evidence for Jesus’ celibacy and zero for the other side.
secular culture has placed sexual activity on a pedestal
And this, combined with celibacy, drives people with abnormal sexuality into the priesthood. They wrongly assume that clerical celibacy will remove their urges.
I think I may be misinterpreting you, because it seems as if there is a contradiction in your statement. In your first sentence you seem to say that celibacy drives people with abnormal sexuality into the priesthood, but then in your second sentence you seem to say that
false assumptions about celibacy do this. I think there is a very big difference between the two. What do you think?
I don’t have a problem with people wanting to devote their lives exclusively to God in the sacrifice of celibacy
We have religious orders for that.
And the priesthood. Don’t forget that celibacy is required for most Catholic priests.
By the way, what about 1 Timothy, which explicitly says that bishops and deacons must be married?
That verse is often misinterpreted that way, but it doesn’t actually require anybody to be married. The meaning is clarified by another place in 1 Timothy where that phrase is used – 1 Timothy 5:9. This says, “Let a widow be enrolled [who is] not less than 60 years [old], being [the] wife of one husband.” (literally translated) A widow is quite obviously not the wife of any husband, no more than a bachelor is the husband of one wife. From this, we can gather that the phrase “wife of one husband” or “husband of one wife” does not have to refer to present spouses, but past ones, e.g. before the spouse died.
From this and other reasons we can infer that 1 Timothy 2 does not require bishops or deacons to be married, but merely that they should not have remarried after their first spouse. And that could be argued as a requirement
for celibacy rather than the opposite, at least in the case of widowers.
Does that explanation make sense?