A
AlanFromWichita
Guest
Here I am playing the skeptic again. I have watched a 90 minute lecture on EWTN, and read many articles, on NFP. Obviously NFP has a lot going for it.
Here’s the part I have a problem with. There are two fact/opinions that seem to contradict each other that are prevalent throughout these teachings, often in the same article.
First, we are told by NFP articles and by the Catechism that “artificial” birth contraceptive methods are immoral because they strive to make procreation impossible. NFP, on the other hand, is “open” to life and therefore is submissive to God’s will, while servings its purpose as family planning by taking advantage of knowledge of the natural fertility cycles.
On the other hand, NFP articles often talk about how NFP methods are “scientifically proven” and how they are statistically more effective than artificial means at preventing pregnancy.
What I want to know is, if NFP is more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, and artificial means are immoral because they strive to make conception impossible and therefore are not open to life, then couldn’t one logically conclude that NFP, being more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, would actually be more immoral? Someone please help me out here.
Please note that I am only talking about methods that prevent conception such as condoms and sterilization, not abortive methods such as IUD and most pills.
Alan
Here’s the part I have a problem with. There are two fact/opinions that seem to contradict each other that are prevalent throughout these teachings, often in the same article.
First, we are told by NFP articles and by the Catechism that “artificial” birth contraceptive methods are immoral because they strive to make procreation impossible. NFP, on the other hand, is “open” to life and therefore is submissive to God’s will, while servings its purpose as family planning by taking advantage of knowledge of the natural fertility cycles.
On the other hand, NFP articles often talk about how NFP methods are “scientifically proven” and how they are statistically more effective than artificial means at preventing pregnancy.
What I want to know is, if NFP is more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, and artificial means are immoral because they strive to make conception impossible and therefore are not open to life, then couldn’t one logically conclude that NFP, being more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, would actually be more immoral? Someone please help me out here.
Please note that I am only talking about methods that prevent conception such as condoms and sterilization, not abortive methods such as IUD and most pills.
Alan