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FrDavid96
Guest
Until a few minutes ago, the question was just hypothetical. Now that it’s become personal that changes things (in terms of my own responses here).And lastly, marriage laws here do require proof that there have been no marriages before, etc.
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Simpy put: the civil marriage is the way to bring my loved on here so we can be together (ie, same country) after 9 months (it’ll be 11 when she comes) of being apart, and then patiently wait for stable income fit for marriage.
And either way, a local priest would be the one who knows best, given he knows how law is in here, and he knows our case personally.
Since he’s often busy, I wanted to see if there was some canon law or catechism paragraph that said if civil marriage, in itself, was wrong, or if it was wrong only because it basically includes fornication (given the couple or one of them is Catholic).
All I can say at this point, is to go back to the original question and try to re-phrase the answer.
If it’s your intention to deceive, then that’s sinful. If you deceive without “intending” to do so, it’s still a sin because objectively, it’s still a lie.
If you are not deceiving anyone, there’s no sin.
It’s not about the marriage ceremony itself. What I’m trying to express here is that the question of sin (which is what you originally asked) is not about the issue of marriage, but about telling the truth.
The question (and I stress that from my perspective, it’s a question, not an answer) is really not about the 6th commandment, but about the 8th.