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That presupposes that everything that Jesus said was to be taken literally. Does that include these verses?What a strange thing for Jesus to say (“eating His flesh”) if he didn’t mean it. John 6, is so emphatic that it will be Jesus’ flesh and blood that are to be consumed that I really don’t know how he could have made it more clear.
“If thy right eye offend thee, pluck it out . . .” (Matthew. 5:29.)
“Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel.” (Matthew 23:24.)
“. . . all things are possible to him that believeth.” (Mark 9:23.)
“If any man come to me and hate not his father and mother . . .” (Luke 14:26.)
“Behold, the world is gone after him.” (John 12:19.)
“And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, . . .” (John 17:11.)
Why employ double standards, when it is clear that not everything that Jesus said was meant to be taken literally?
No, you are still ignoring what Jesus said in the rest of that passage:Those that walked away obviously heard it that way and couldn’t handle it, not that I blame them. What a thing to say! The Apostles, who stayed with him didn’t say “Hey we get it, we understand what you are saying”. They said “To whom shall we go, you have the words of eternal life”. They believed because of the One who told them in spite of their lack of understanding through reason alone. They saw with eyes of faith.
John 6:
60 Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an hard saying; who can hear it?
61 When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?
62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?
63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
All the Catholics that I have spoken to persist in ignoring and turning a blind eye to that passage, although they have no answer to give to it. Why?
So you think it is wrong for Jesus to show Himself to others after His resurrection? How about this:Sounds a lot like doubting Thomas who would not believe unless he placed his hands into Jesus’ wounds. “Blessed are those who have not seen, yet believe.”
1 Corinthians 15:
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
5 And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve:
6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.
Why is it okay for those people to have seen Jesus after His resurrection, but not the Nephites?
The highlighted bit is what doesn’t make sense to me. What is the basis of that belief? And what does it really mean? I can’t understand it.Sorry I didn’t better communicate. What I am trying to get to is what you think it means when Jesus said “Do this in remembrance of me”. In the Catholic tradition it means much more than to “remember” in the common and modern sense of the word. It means that the sacrifice of Christ, once, for all, is made present to us at that very moment.
Do they have “Remembrance Day” or “Veterans Day” where you live, which is the day that is set aside to remember war veterans who are dead? Why do you think they have set aside a special day for that, when you could say “I remember them anyway”? Why do you have to put a different meaning on wards than the obvious ones that the author should have intended? If Jesus wanted you to understand something other than “remember” by “remember,” He would have said so. What right do you have to put words in Jesus’ mouth which He never uttered?I can “remember” Jesus, and do, all the time. I don’t have to receive the Eucharist in order to remember him. This is something different. How is it different for you? Have I made this clear as mud for you?![]()
Yes, but it is also possible to lose that Spirit by not doing what is right:I have no problem with the fact that Jesus’ is with us spiritually, indeed he is. My point in telling you in an earlier part of my post that I received the Holy Spirit in Baptism is to make a distinction. His Spirit (The Holy Spirit) is with me always because of my baptism, the gifts thereof being strengthened in Confirmation. In the Eucharist he is present in a different way. It is how he fulfills his promise to his Church not to leave us orphans and to remain with us always. And yes, when Christ is present within us it is “a well of water springing up to everlasting life”.
“And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, . . .” (Ephesians 4:30.)
“Quench not the Spirit.” (1 Thessalonians 5:19).
When we partake of the Sacrament regularly, we don’t just remember Him at that time; we make a promise that we will always remember Him, and we will take upon us His name, and will keep his commandments. It is a combination of all of those factors which guarantees that we will always have His Spirit to be with us. If we do not fulfill those requirements, then we “grieve the Spirit” as Paul says, and we will not always have His Spirit to be with us.