C
catholic-rcia
Guest
Your explanation is very Protestant in nature and very New Age. Today we even have some claiming that Jesus really did not multiply the fish and loaves in order to feed the multitude. They claim that what really happened was everyone just pitched in like having a pot luck dinner, denying this wonderful miracle. Lessoning the title of the Son of God, the eternal Son.
Their argument is very familiar. Example “did God really tell you not to eat from the tree in the middle of the garden? No,… here is what He really meant to say”
In order for you to back up the Mormon Great Apostasy you would need to show where what you have written was actually taught in the early church. Where your explanation, this protestant explanation was taught in the early church. You should be able to find it. To show that the early church believed and taught what you are saying, what you have written, the timeline and so forth. I have to ask, how does it feel to be correcting Jesus Himself, to tell His own Church what He really meant? Just some food for thought Parker.
**From Catholic Answers **
http://www.catholic.com/library/Christ_in_the_Eucharist.asp
Merely Figurative?
”They say that in John 6 Jesus was not talking about physical food and drink, but about spiritual food and drink. They quote John 6:35: “Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’” They claim that coming to him is bread, having faith in him is drink. Thus, eating his flesh and blood merely means believing in Christ.
But there is a problem with that interpretation. As Fr. John A. O’Brien explains, “The phrase ‘to eat the flesh and drink the blood,’ when used figuratively among the Jews, as among the Arabs of today, meant to inflict upon a person some serious injury, especially by calumny or by false accusation. To interpret the phrase figuratively then would be to make our Lord promise life everlasting to the culprit for slandering and hating him, which would reduce the whole passage to utter nonsense” (O’Brien, The Faith of Millions, 215). For an example of this use, see Micah 3:3.
Fundamentalist writers who comment on John 6 also assert that one can show Christ was speaking only metaphorically by comparing verses like John 10:9 (“I am the door”) and John 15:1 (“I am the true vine”). The problem is that there is not a connection to John 6:35, “I am the bread of life.” “I am the door” and “I am the vine” make sense as metaphors because Christ is like a door—we go to heaven through him—and he is also like a vine—we get our spiritual sap through him. But Christ takes John 6:35 far beyond symbolism by saying, “For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed” (John 6:55).
He continues: “As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me” (John 6:57). The Greek word used for “eats” (trogon) is very blunt and has the sense of “chewing” or “gnawing.” This is not the language of metaphor.”
Entire context above at link
Rich
www.utahmission.com
http://utahmission.com/pages/Mass_Explained.html
Their argument is very familiar. Example “did God really tell you not to eat from the tree in the middle of the garden? No,… here is what He really meant to say”
In order for you to back up the Mormon Great Apostasy you would need to show where what you have written was actually taught in the early church. Where your explanation, this protestant explanation was taught in the early church. You should be able to find it. To show that the early church believed and taught what you are saying, what you have written, the timeline and so forth. I have to ask, how does it feel to be correcting Jesus Himself, to tell His own Church what He really meant? Just some food for thought Parker.
**From Catholic Answers **
http://www.catholic.com/library/Christ_in_the_Eucharist.asp
Merely Figurative?
”They say that in John 6 Jesus was not talking about physical food and drink, but about spiritual food and drink. They quote John 6:35: “Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’” They claim that coming to him is bread, having faith in him is drink. Thus, eating his flesh and blood merely means believing in Christ.
But there is a problem with that interpretation. As Fr. John A. O’Brien explains, “The phrase ‘to eat the flesh and drink the blood,’ when used figuratively among the Jews, as among the Arabs of today, meant to inflict upon a person some serious injury, especially by calumny or by false accusation. To interpret the phrase figuratively then would be to make our Lord promise life everlasting to the culprit for slandering and hating him, which would reduce the whole passage to utter nonsense” (O’Brien, The Faith of Millions, 215). For an example of this use, see Micah 3:3.
Fundamentalist writers who comment on John 6 also assert that one can show Christ was speaking only metaphorically by comparing verses like John 10:9 (“I am the door”) and John 15:1 (“I am the true vine”). The problem is that there is not a connection to John 6:35, “I am the bread of life.” “I am the door” and “I am the vine” make sense as metaphors because Christ is like a door—we go to heaven through him—and he is also like a vine—we get our spiritual sap through him. But Christ takes John 6:35 far beyond symbolism by saying, “For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed” (John 6:55).
He continues: “As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me” (John 6:57). The Greek word used for “eats” (trogon) is very blunt and has the sense of “chewing” or “gnawing.” This is not the language of metaphor.”
Entire context above at link
Rich
www.utahmission.com
http://utahmission.com/pages/Mass_Explained.html