W
WannabeSaint
Guest
I’m confused over something I read. Cardinal Muller says the following.
"What if the penitent is not accountable for his or her sins, because of a lack of knowledge or responsibility? A person’s freedom may be impaired due to ignorance. God alone is able to judge a person’s subjective culpability."
Is this true?
If we were to apply the same logic, wouldn’t that mean…for example…I could be held culpable for vandalizing my neighbor’s home even though I wasn’t even in town when it was vandalized nor did I make any plans to vandalize his house?
What is the Cardinal referring to here in his statement?
"What if the penitent is not accountable for his or her sins, because of a lack of knowledge or responsibility? A person’s freedom may be impaired due to ignorance. God alone is able to judge a person’s subjective culpability."
Is this true?
If we were to apply the same logic, wouldn’t that mean…for example…I could be held culpable for vandalizing my neighbor’s home even though I wasn’t even in town when it was vandalized nor did I make any plans to vandalize his house?
What is the Cardinal referring to here in his statement?