I
itsjustdave1988
Guest
Before participating in the Sacraments, yes. Before entering into a new marriage, yes. But after already having entered into a new marriage, when a couple returns to the Church, does the Church oblige a couple to separate or live together continently (as brother and sister) prior to the annulment? I don’t believe so. Show me the magisterial texts which support this. From Pope John Paul II’s Familiaris Consortio, it seems he directs a pastoral approach that takes each person’s situation into consideration.No, you must wait for the judgement of the Church.
All that I have found supports that if one is already remarried, they are not to participate in the Sacraments until the annulment findings are complete and the new marriage is canonically approved. They *must *live continently prior to the annulment **in order to participate in the Sacraments. **This says nothing of the state of grace of the married couple awaiting annulment who do not live continently but refrain from the Sacraments until the annulment process is complete.
Internal forum does not permit one to disobey canon law and participate in the Sacraments. However, the Church has not ruled that their current marriage is invalid or valid. The first marriage will be presumed to be valid because the facts of the case are not yet known by the Church tribunal. Objectively speaking, the presumption of validity may or may not be correct. It is a juridical procedure to presume validity, not a ruling or declaration of validity that may or may not be overturned after the annulment process is complete.
So, the couple may be “**subjectively certain in conscience that their previous and irreparably destroyed marriage had never been valid.” **(Pope John Paul II, Familiaris Consortio). In such cases, if the married couple continues to live in what they believe to be their first valid marriage in the eyes of God, then do they commit mortal sin?
In the eyes of God, if the couple’s subjective judgement is objectively true, they commit no sin at all. If their subjective judgement is objectively false in the eyes of God, they commit sin. But do they commit *mortal *sin? That depends. What is required for a sin to be mortal? According to the Catechism of Pope St. Pius X: (1) Grave matter, (2) Full advertence, (3) Perfect consent of the will. Was is grave matter. Yes. Was there full advertence. Perhaps not. St. Pius X states that “Full advertence in sinning is had when we know perfectly well that we are doing a serious evil.” **It seems to me that full advertence is necessarily lacking when the couple is subjectively certain in conscience that their previous and irreparably destroyed marriage had never been valid.
That is why I believe the Deacon’s response in Post #1 is correct and is not contradictory to Catholic teaching.
Is there magisterial texts that teach to the contrary? If so, please let me know. I might very well be wrong. I will always submit to my pastor, who submits to my Bishop, who submits to my Pope, who submits to my God. I find no evidence that the Deacon in post #1 contradicted Catholic teaching (although a “stay in Purgatory” is speculative, but quite likely for any of us).