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Hereiam
Guest
You are confusing “literal interpretation” with “literal sense”…the two are very different.
That’s why I made the distinction of “literalistic” …You are confusing “literal interpretation” with “literal sense”…the two are very different.
How does that not make sense?That doesn’t make sense.
Based on the logic of it being ‘put together’ it would have been the priestly person who put it together (say in the 7th century bc) and just left out the jahwist version.
No, you really don’t. That’s the beauty of the anagogical sense. The spiritual meaning transcends the historical or other literal contexts of the passage.Still, though, if you want to claim one of the spiritual senses of Scripture, you still have to make a claim for what the literal sense of that passage is.
Exactly. The J & P sources explanation is the best one, and it is also the Catholic one.two different sources J (Jahwist) and P (Priestly)
See the PathsToKnowlege link posted earlier.Can you point out which two verses contradict each other in this regard? I’m still not seeing it.
No.No, you really don’t. That’s the beauty of the anagogical sense. The spiritual meaning transcends the historical or other literal contexts of the passage.
While there is a distinction between the two senses, the spiritual sense can never be stripped of its connection with the literal sense. The latter remains the indispensable foundation.
“Transcending” still means it comes from, so of course the literal sense is the source, but is not driving force of the message.From “The Interpretation of the Bible in the Catholic Church”, by the Pontifical Biblical Commission:
While there is a distinction between the two senses, the spiritual sense can never be stripped of its connection with the literal sense. The latter remains the indispensable foundation.
“Indispensable foundation” kinda does imply “driving force”…“Transcending” still means it comes from, so of course the literal sense is the source, but is not driving force of the message.
No, the JEDP theory is one commonly adhered to by scholars, both Catholic and otherwise, and formerly forbidden to Catholic scholars. The Church has never said anything even remotely in the ballpark of “Catholics have to believe JEDP”.The J & P sources explanation is the best one, and it is also the Catholic one.
In a legalistic sense, probably.“Indispensable foundation” kinda does imply “driving force”
I’m concerned that you aren’t making a distinction between outdated understandings of Sacred Scripture and modern scholarly ones.No, the JEDP theory is one commonly adhered to by scholars, both Catholic and otherwise, and formerly forbidden to Catholic scholars. The Church has never said anything even remotely in the ballpark of “Catholics have to believe JEDP”.
It’s like geocentrism, which was also once commonly adhered to by scholars. The difference being that there were once objectively good reasons for believing in geocentrism.
No. It is not “illogical.” You aren’t making any sense. It’s also clear that you don’t understand the subject matter. Therefore you’re hardly in a position for anyone to take you seriously.Yes, stories can have different versions. They can even be spliced together. However saying some priest or rabbi person did this much later to have a greater focus on their own priesthood is illogical.
Which proves nothing beyond the fact that you have no knowledge of the subject matter.If they wanted to have greater focus on their priesthood they would have just left it out.
Frankly, I did not need to look at the source. I looked at the material being presented. That’s what matters.Did you even look at that source? I would think you would know better, Friar David,
This is what’s known as the “genetic fallacy” it claiming that something is untrue merely because of the person who wrote it.it is written by a ‘bishop’, who is married with 5 kids and is a part of something called a Home Temple order. Here is their website just so you can understand where the author is coming from
Misinterpreted my meaning; bishop and married do not go hand in hand, ever. To your first point, I was questioning his agenda.it is written by a ‘bishop’, who is married with 5 kids and is a part of something called a Home Temple order. Here is their website just so you can understand where the author is coming from
This is what’s known as the “genetic fallacy” it claiming that something is untrue merely because of the person who wrote it.
The fact that he has 5 children does not make him wrong when he provides a separation of the J and P narratives from each other
Would it not be because they were sent out after 40 days?If the tops of the mountains were visible after 150 days why did the raven and dove come back and couldn’t land on top like the ark did?
No. I do not misinterpret it.Misinterpreted my meaning; bishop and married do not go hand in hand, ever.
And it’s still the genetic fallacy.To your first point, I was questioning his agenda.
By that standard, we should only have one Gospel, not four, right? Yet, those who compiled the Bible decided that these four accounts were all valuable and inspired. Perhaps the redactor of the Genesis account decided the same thing.Based on the logic of it being ‘put together’ it would have been the priestly person who put it together (say in the 7th century bc) and just left out the jahwist version.