P
PRmerger
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Exactly my point.I don’t think one precludes the other.
One can have moral absolutes. And one can have a moral norm which evolves as society evolves.
One does not preclude the other.
Sure.To uphold some moral standard is to say that, all else being equal, a society that adheres to that standard will be better than one that doesn’t, no matter how much time has elapsed in making that comparison. The fact that morals evolve doesn’t diminish anyone’s enthusiastic support for their own version of morality.

Explicitly, no. That is correct.As far as I know, the Church doesn’t explicitly state whether a particular teaching is infallible or not
at least when the claim being made is falsifiable. I mean, the Church will never make a testable claim about the universe and tack a “by the way, this teaching is infallible” onto it.

I can’t think of any claim the Church would make about the universe, as it applies to God’s revelation.
Oh, absolutely not.This means the Church can always backpedal if it’s wrong, while still getting the benefit of an ambiguous definition of infallibility in the meantime.
You are confusing “ambiguous definition of infallibility” (the Church’s definition of infallibility is NOT ambiguous at all. That you don’t know what it is ought not be misinterpreted as “The Church’s definition is ambiguous”) with "the Church does not explicitly define all teachings as infallible or not.)