Could the Universe have Created Itself?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Linusthe2nd
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
40.png
inocente:
Call me all the names you like, the first three of his questions still breach the sticky “It is never acceptable to question the sincerity of an individual’s beliefs”.
I’m not calling you names. What name did I call you? And no, his first three questions do not breach that sticky. None of them do. They say nothing about sincerity or lying. They ask what your beliefs are. They do not question your sincerity.
 
Our world need not be contingent on a necessary cause. The cause itself could be contingent on a necessary cause. There could be a list of contingent causes between us and the first cause, or the list could be empty, including no supposed first cause.
If you have a proposed model for how contingent things could exist without a first, uncaused cause, I’m all ears, but philosophers generally admit that this is impossible.

As for a chain of causes, the problem with this is that the universe -is already- all of physical space and time. Therefore, any further contingent causes would need to be nonspacial and nontemporal, and there are no good reasons for thinking that a nontemporal thing would be contingent.

However, even supposing there -were- a chain of causes before the first cause, the fact remains that a first, uncaused cause -must- exist, in order to provide an adequate explanation for contingent things.
Also isn’t a necessary cause incompatible with free will, since it necessarily has to act as it does, whereas if it has a choice then the choice is contingent on something?
“Cause,” in this case, refers to a being which is causally-related to the universe, but it doesn’t imply that the -act- of causing the universe to exist is necessary, or else the universe -itself- would have a necessary existence.

As far as I can see, there’s no contradiction in positing a necessary being, which is capable of making choices on a non-necessary basis.
Which is fine, the world could have cycled through a series of incarnations of which we are unaware.
Sure, that could happen, but that’s not the point. The point is that unless the First Cause had the freedom to make non-necessary decisions, no contingent things could ever come into existence.
Don’t see that you’re proved anything at all. Three philosophers, an Eastern, a Western and a Post Enlightenment, walk into a bar and still disagree.
That’s because you’re still committing the fallacy of Argumentum ad Populum; appealing to what people believe for truth, rather than to the evidence. Please look over the evidence again. Remember this is a deductive argument, so unless one of the premises is false, or the logic unsound, its conclusion is inescapable.

If you want to know what the truth is, you can’t fall into the lie that because people disagree, no one is right. People used to disagree about whether the Earth was flat too. Yet, one group of people was right and the other wasn’t. The same is true here. A number of those people you mention are incorrect.
Don’t see how, for instance a cyclic world could necessarily cycle, have no choice but to cycle, yet go through every possible internal composition in successive cycles. Or, a Star Wars Force could be necessary yet blindly produce contingent effects.
All viable cyclic world models were disproven decades ago, and “the Force” isn’t even a viable theory, because it doesn’t have any propositional content. I think we should confine our discussion to theories that are actually meaningful.
Then that would be the scientific method.
No. Science is restricted in its ability to explain existence by the fact that it must do so through experimentation and measurement. Generally-speaking, if something can’t be measured in a physical way, it doesn’t fall within the field of science. For example, science would be incapable of studying the nature of ideas. What do ideas consist of, and where do they originate? What is a man? What is man’s purpose? Does man have a non-physical mind? What is the real nature of a phantasm? Is it different from perception, and if so, how? These are questions that science simply ignores, as well it should.

This is why, in the past, it’s been rightly said that philosophy is an utterly different form of knowledge from science.
Not sure what your argument is here. People debate free will vs. fatalism, whether the physical law could have been otherwise, why there is something rather than nothing, etc.

People debate it because we don’t know. What we do know, on the basis of experience, is that given certain conditions within a system, what happens next could not happen otherwise. We also know that in a real system it can be impossible, even in principle, to predict what happens next due to the butterfly effect etc.

Imho it’s better to form our beliefs on the basis of what we know rather than what we don’t know.
Argumentum ad populum again. It sounds like you’re saying that because people debate something; therefore, their conclusions must all be wrong/questionable.

The fact is, as I said, that we have good evidence that cause and effect really exist, and no evidence that they do not. Therefore, it’s less rational to believe in a necessary universe on this basis alone. If you want to argue against this, you have to start by presenting some good evidence that cause and effect do not exist.

For the record, the real reason that people debate things is that humans are not perfect, and make frequent mistakes. When someone becomes convinced that their mistake is correct, then the debate begins. Often, it’s the result of some logical fallacy, like this one.
 
Yes, it did, I’m pretty sure you put a slash between reason and senses. Besides, if it’s only about our senses, then one could just deny the reliability of the senses. And no, that’s not irrelevant, because if they formed by chance (ie. if they are physical and so are to be explained in the traditional atheistic way (evolution)) then they are presumably not reliable.
Denying the reliability of the senses is a fool’s errand. The reason we believe that our senses are reliable is that we have good evidence that they’re reliable, and no evidence that they’re unreliable. If you want to seriously advance the claim that our senses are unreliable, you must do so using evidence that you admit is unreliable. This is why the claim never got off the ground, in philosophy. It’s self-refuting, and therefore necessarily false. I’m frankly surprised that you’d even propose this.

I never claimed that merely being physical would make our reason or our senses unreliable. Therefore, the second part of your argument is simply inapplicable to me, if not another strawman.
Yeah, some things are self-defined. Consider, for instance, the concept of truth. Can you define truth? No, you can’t, at least not in a non-recursive way. But everyone knows what truth is. It’s inherently self-defined.
Yes. I can define the truth. Truth is that which conforms to reality.

The very concept of a definition involves outlining what something is through a brief description of the thing. Descriptions are all human creations. Therefore, nothing defines itself.
Then the argument is circular. You’re saying that if it is possible for God to exists, then God’s existence is necessary. However, then premise you would need in order to reach that conclusion ontologically is “God exists in the actual world”, which is a disputed proposition.
No, that’s not the premise you would need. The premise you would need is “it is -possible- for God to exist at all,” and many atheists would be hard pressed to prove that premise false.
What if that tautology is just your opinion?
An opinion is a subjective value judgment. A tautology is a formula which is true in every possible interpretation. They’re not even close to one another. It’s like asking if that rabbit in your backyard is just my house.
No, philosophy is not based entirely on tautologies. You believe everything that philosophy can prove, it can prove using only tautologies, then prove that to me. Prove anything at all using just tautologies.
Are you actually asking me to walk you through the entire history of philosophy? :confused:
 
40.png
mytruepower2:
Denying the reliability of the senses is a fool’s errand. The reason we believe that our senses are reliable is that we have good evidence that they’re reliable, and no evidence that they’re unreliable. If you want to seriously advance the claim that our senses are unreliable, you must do so using evidence that you admit is unreliable. This is why the claim never got off the ground, in philosophy. It’s self-refuting, and therefore necessarily false. I’m frankly surprised that you’d even propose this.
No, it’s not necessarily a fool’s errand. While it is important to note that I did not actually do that, I don’t think it’s a fool’s errand. What evidence are you saying we have for the relaibility of the senses? And why would I have to advance that claim using unreliable evidence? We have knowledge through our reasoning, which I would not be denying. Thus, the claim is not self-refuting.
40.png
mytruepower2:
Yes. I can define the truth. Truth is that which conforms to reality.
What do you mean by “reality”? Doesn’t reality just mean “whatever is true?”
40.png
mytruepower2:
An opinion is a subjective value judgment. A tautology is a formula which is true in every possible interpretation. They’re not even close to one another. It’s like asking if that rabbit in your backyard is just my house.
I was not implying relativism. But the existence of objective truth is certainly self-evident, yet it is not a tautology 😛
40.png
mytruepower2:
Are you actually asking me to walk you through the entire history of philosophy? :confused:
Just answer the challenge. :rolleyes:
 
No, it’s not necessarily a fool’s errand. While it is important to note that I did not actually do that, I don’t think it’s a fool’s errand. What evidence are you saying we have for the relaibility of the senses? And why would I have to advance that claim using unreliable evidence? We have knowledge through our reasoning, which I would not be denying. Thus, the claim is not self-refuting.
Are you suggesting that our reasoning presents good reasons to deny the reliability of the senses. I almost hope you’re joking, but then, if you are… Well, what did you mean by this? Please make a claim, as I’ve repeatedly done.
What do you mean by “reality”? Doesn’t reality just mean “whatever is true?”
Reality is “What exists independently of anybody believing or desiring it.”
I was not implying relativism. But the existence of objective truth is certainly self-evident, yet it is not a tautology 😛
I have only your word for that. There are good reasons to think that the truth of truth is indeed a tautology. I’ve provided them, and you’ve yet to challenge them.
Just answer the challenge. :rolleyes:
Okay.

I’ve already given you a starting point, by proving that tautologies alone establish the existence of truth, and therefore, the reality that some claims are false. They also establish that truthful evidence is true, and false evidence is false, which is the basis of the traditional (correct) understanding of logic, which, in turn, forms the grounding of philosophy. In other words, the truthful evidence must be used in recognition of truth claims. Whatever proposition is self-refuting or in conflict with clearly-true evidence is false. Whatever proposition has the weight of the truthful evidence behind it is true.

This is all so simple, that it’s presupposed by most philosophers of the ancient world, who recognized that when one has a wealth of true evidence for one proposition, and no evidence for its contrary, one is irrational to believe its contrary. As for how these simple truths blossomed into all of philosophy, I simply won’t waste my time in that way. Read a book to find out more.
 
40.png
mytruepower2:
Are you suggesting that our reasoning presents good reasons to deny the reliability of the senses. I almost hope you’re joking, but then, if you are… Well, what did you mean by this? Please make a claim, as I’ve repeatedly done.
I do not think reasoning presents such reasons. And I am certainly not joking about anything I’ve said thus far. The claim of that paragraph was that denying the senses is not a “fool’s errand”, but the claim I was referring to in the last paragraph there was that the senses are in fact unreliable.
40.png
mytruepower2:
Reality is “What exists independently of anybody believing or desiring it.”
But what is “independently of anybody believing or desiring it?” Doesn’t that just mean it’s objective?
40.png
mytruepower2:
I have only your word for that. There are good reasons to think that the truth of truth is indeed a tautology. I’ve provided them, and you’ve yet to challenge them.
No, you have self-evidence for it. You have provided no such reasons. Care to say what this tautology is? Is it “truth = truth”? Cause that’s not an assertion of absolutism.
40.png
mytruepower2:
I’ve already given you a starting point, by proving that tautologies alone establish the existence of truth, and therefore, the reality that some claims are false.
This assertion is already not a tautology, so you failed.
 
To say that the universe could have created itself violates the first principle of non-contradiction: “a thing cannot both be and not be at the same time in the same respect or relation”. To state that the universe can create itself from nothing is contradictory because it must posit the universe in the order of being in order that it may be able to bring itself out of being or from nothing. The universe is treated as if it were a being whereas nothing is nonbeing and therefore we see the contradiction.
 
In these arguments, we can see what is termed “faulty dilemma.”

Did the universe create itself OR was it created. Aristotle clarified this long ago.

The Universe was thought to always have existed.

Aquinas admitted that he couldn’t disprove this.
 
In these arguments, we can see what is termed “faulty dilemma.”

Did the universe create itself OR was it created. Aristotle clarified this long ago.

The Universe was thought to always have existed.

Aquinas admitted that he couldn’t disprove this.
It is ONLY a faulty dilemma if Standard Big Bang cosmology is incorrect and the universe did not come into existence 13.7 billion years ago. Assuming it did, then the only live options remaining are
  1. it was “brought into existence” (created or caused to exist) or
  2. simply “came into existence” (created itself.)
 
Yes, it makes a difference. The universe could not have created itself because that requires a source with the intelligence and power to do it. The universe has no intelligence, it just a thing. It is just matter, how could matter create anything? Does a hunk of iron, a hunk of plastic, a hunk of copper, a hunk of rubber, a hunk of glass, get together and plan and then build a car? Hardly.

It takes an intellect to create something ( or even to make it ), and the universe is not an intellect. So that intellect is not a part of the universe, it exists outside the universe. And we call that intellect, God.

Linus2nd
I suppose I just kind of reject the dichotomy.

I believe in both of the following:
  1. The Universe and matter came into being in a manner consistent with what astrophysicists describe (as much as one can “get at” that – given the nature of scientific inquiry).
AND
  1. God created.
Clearly I believe that God created all things. I’m saying that “God creating” might look like the Universe self-creating when seen through a telescope and in scientific and astronomical inquiry.

I’m comfortable with that mysterious tension.
 
It is ONLY a faulty dilemma if Standard Big Bang cosmology is incorrect and the universe did not come into existence 13.7 billion years ago. Assuming it did, then the only live options remaining are
  1. it was “brought into existence” (created or caused to exist) or
  2. simply “came into existence” (created itself.)
RESPONSE:

No. You are omitting the third, the most logical, option . (That’s called a “faulty dilemma” because it ignors all the alternatives).

The form of the present universe was the result of the Big Bang. But something, perhaps raw energy, existed before it and compressed to form matter and the universe we know now.

It is illogical to "asssume’ that there was nothing before it, for from nothing comes nothing.
 
RESPONSE:

No. You are omitting the third, the most logical, option . (That’s called a “faulty dilemma” because it ignors all the alternatives).

The form of the present universe was the result of the Big Bang. But something, perhaps raw energy, existed before it and compressed to form matter and the universe we know now.
That is arguing that Standard Big Bang cosmology is mistaken, or at least, inadequate, which means you are not allowing the “given” aspect of the dilemma. You are simply not “allowing” the premise that the universe began 13.7 billion years ago. Obviously if “raw energy” pre-existed the Big Bang, then the universe (defined as matter, energy, space and time) did not begin at the Big Bang. Again, the dilemma assumes Big Bang cosmology.
It is illogical to "asssume’ that there was nothing before it, for from nothing comes nothing.
It is quite logical to allow the possibility that matter may not be “everything.” If the universe (matter, energy, space, time) began to exist at the Big Bang then it is quite logical to assume something “else” (not material, immaterial) brought the universe into being.

Creation ex nihilo means creation “from” nothing in the sense that the universe was brought into existence “where” no universe (i.e., no-“thing”) existed before.
 
Peter Plato:
That is arguing that Standard Big Bang cosmology is mistaken, or at least, inadequate, which means you are not allowing the “given” aspect of the dilemma.
I don’t mean to contest your point, but the standard big bang cosmology is mistaken.
 
Historian

If the universe always existed, how would anybody be able to prove it?

Nothing that is in the universe we know always existed. Why is it therefore not reasonable to infer that even the universe did not always exist, since the whole cannot be greater than the sum of its parts?
 
Peter Plato:
Care to explain or just make a pronouncement?
It is mistaken in attributing the creation of time, space, matter, and energy to the big bang, which was an explosion, and therefore by definition presupposes the existence of all four, so it actually couldn’t have created any of them.
 
It is mistaken in attributing the creation of time, space, matter, and energy to the big bang, which was an explosion, and therefore by definition presupposes the existence of all four, so it actually couldn’t have created any of them.
So by characterizing it as an “explosion” you have nullified all of the claims of modern physics?

Well done, you!
 
It is mistaken in attributing the creation of time, space, matter, and energy to the big bang, which was an explosion, and therefore by definition presupposes the existence of all four, so it actually couldn’t have created any of them.
Sentinel
You obviously don’t understand the big bang theory. Would you like a refresher course?
Yppop
 
Judging by the flaws in the human body (cancer, retardation, brain aneurism, etc.) I feel as if we are definitely just a very advanced, evolved species. No creator behind it. Just lots of evolving.
 
Let me see if I’ve got this straight. You claimed…
The claim of that paragraph was that denying the senses is not a “fool’s errand”, but the claim I was referring to in the last paragraph there was that the senses are in fact unreliable.
Yet, with regards to coming up with some -reason- for believing any of this, you admitted…
I do not think reasoning presents such reasons.
In short, you’re trying to make a claim that you have no good reason to believe, in contradiction of a claim that we all have -many- good reasons to believe.
But what is “independently of anybody believing or desiring it?” Doesn’t that just mean it’s objective?
No. It means that the thing is independent of our desires and beliefs. Don’t try to oversimplify definitions, or you’ll find yourself missing most truthful information.
Is it “truth = truth”? Cause that’s not an assertion of absolutism.
Given the definition of “truth” as presented before, in what sense does this not prove that truth is real?
This assertion is already not a tautology, so you failed.
Individual statements don’t need to be tautologies in order to have a -basis- in tautologies. In fact, I’m becoming more and more convinced, as we talk, that you’re unaware of what the word “basis” means, so let me do you a favor and give the definition now.

Basis: the bottom of something considered as its foundation -or- something on which something else is established or based.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top