M
Marauder
Guest
I just found from the USCCB’s own web page why the all vs. many issue exists in the Gospel of Mark from a linquistic viewpoint. The following quote comes from the footnotes of the online Bible located on their site.
P.S. Everyone have a great and blessed weekend.
Note: that they use the word “many” in their translation on the site.For many: the Greek preposition hyper is a different one from that at Matthew 26:28 but the same as that found at Luke 22:19, 20 and 1 Cor 11:24. The sense of both words is vicarious, and it is difficult in Hellenistic Greek to distinguish between them. For many in the sense of “all,” see the note on Matthew 20:28.
P.S. Everyone have a great and blessed weekend.