You are right. I won’t. You asked a question of me and I answered. You gave a general “every translation disagrees with” type of answer. I took you are your word as wanting an answer. I will not waste more time.
If you want to believe what “every translation” says and think Jesus was pushing for executing children, then believe what you already believe. I am a Catholic, though.
You accuse me of proof texting. That’s OK and a reasonable assumption.
You write: “If you want to believe what “every translation” says and think Jesus was pushing for executing children, then believe what you already believe. I am a Catholic, though.”
It is not what I want that matters, as the passage makes clear, it is what the passage says and means, inclusive of all the additional references I noted, all of which repeat that in the context of the Word of God. That was Jesus’ point.
Yes, I believe that what God says is what God says, over and over and in context and that Jesus was making that precise point - do not do what selfishly benefits oursleves, it is the Word of God.
pnewton, you were stating what you wanted it to say and then, turned it around as if it wasn’t the Word of God, but was only what I wanted.
I think all humans are subject to this type of self serving nonsense, even when they are unaware of it.
But, you need not be so blind in not seeing it in yourself and then wrongly projecting it onto others.
Jesus was the One who chose the passage: Word of God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4
It is a command. But, He was using a well known command by God, to show how the Pharisees had wrongly used that passage to serve themselves and not God.
Do you think Jesus would use an Old Testament command by God that was no longer in effect, to make the precise point that the Pharisees were perverting the Word of God with that command?
I think Jesus would only use a command that was still the Word of God. That was the exact point. Why would Jesus criticise the Pharisees for misusing a passage that Jesus no longer found licit. Wouldn’t He only use something He knew to be upheld, particularly in the context of the Pharisees misusing it? Jesus would only correct them if they were misusing a just and licit command.
Exodus 20:12
Exodus 21:17
Leviticus 20:9
Deuteronomy 5:16