Death penalty and purpose of punishment

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Okay, so the obvious question is: what constitutes “horrible deformity”? Let’s take Aquinas’ approval of capital punishment for theft if you don’t think that obscene pornography is not “horribly deformed.” Do you think that if Kenneth Lay had not had a heart attack, the state should have executed him? Aquinas apparently would have. (That Enron business was horribly deformed, you have to admit.)
The question may be obvious but I consider it irrelevant; I am trying to establish a principle, not figure out in which specific cases it may apply. I claim that there are crimes for which the only just punishment is death. If that claim is wrong then we don’t need to concern ourselves with specific examples and if it is right then the point is made and 2267 is found to be unsupportable.

Ender
 
Ender: The significance of the crime of murder cannot change with the times or in different historical settings nor can the standard of punishment, as it has been set “for all time.” Whatever may be true of other crimes is irrelevant.

Betterave: That’s your personal interpretation, not Church teaching.
One of the most frequently quoted passages in Scripture, to be found in one encyclical after another, is Gen 9:6, as this establishes the sacredness of human life: it is “made in the image of God.”

The murderer is the worst enemy of his species, and consequently of nature. To the utmost of his power he destroys the universal work of God by the destruction of man, since God declares that He created all things for man’s sake. Nay, as
* it is forbidden in Genesis to take human life, because God created man to his own image** and likeness, he who makes away with God’s image offers great injury to God, and almost seems to lay violent hands on God Himself !*

So, what part of this do you claim will change over time? That man will cease to be sacred or that God will cease to see murder as a great injury? My arguments are based on what the Church teaches, they are hardly my personal opinions.
It good to refer to texts, but you need to try to be sensitive to the broader context of reality as well.
How very “spirit of Vatican II”-ish. When the plain teachings become too much to rebut, just dismiss them in favor of the “broader context of reality.”
Ender: How many references are required before you admit that this is exactly how she perceives Gen 9:5-6?
Betterave: One would be nice (for starters).
Well this is disingenuous. I’ve already cited Cardinal Dulles, and entire sections of the Catechism of Trent referring specifically to those passages. Perhaps you see fit to ignore them as not being relevant to the “broader context of reality.”
Note what the good Cardinal does NOT say: If the Pope were to deny that the death penalty is the best way to exercise retributive justice, he would be overthrowing the tradition of two millennia of Catholic thought, denying the teaching of several previous popes, and contradicting the teaching of Scripture (notably in Genesis 9:5-6 and Romans 13:1-4). You are the one saying that and erroneously claiming that Cardinal Dulles supports you in doing so.
Ah, argument from absence. You invent a phrase you suppose to be meaningful, point out that it isn’t there, and claim “Aha”. The phrase is irrelevant. The significance of Dulles’ remarks was the specific reference to Gen 9:5-6 in the context of the Church’s teaching on the death penalty.
The point you are missing is that we are discussing not just punishment per se, but social policy on punishment.
I’m not. I’m discussing the Church’s teachings on punishment.
That’s nonsense (you’re also contradicting Dudley here). The two may obviously be causally linked. A particular form of retribution (e.g., execution) may obviously produce better security. Thus a prudential judgment about security may well inform a prudential judgment about the appropriate form retribution.
This is true (except for the nonsense part) but it’s not the point. As both retribution and protection are valid objectives of punishment they can both be validly considered in determining the appropriate punishment, nonetheless they have completely separate objectives. What 2267 says is that since executions are not necessary to provide security they are not necessary for retributive purposes either, but retribution has its own standard that must be met regardless of whether or not those of security are satisfied.

Ender
 
This is a somewhat depressing comment to read. You seem quite intelligent enough to understand my comments so when you make such a poor representation of my position I have a hard time understanding why.
Ender, I’ll assume that it is not your intention simply to be hypocritical here and ask you to explain what is wrong with my representation of your position:

EV and the CCC contradict the ‘clear’ teaching of the Church. This teaching is that execution should in all times and places be the penal norm in cases of murder and only in cases of murder.
 
Ender, I’ll assume that it is not your intention simply to be hypocritical here and ask you to explain what is wrong with my representation of your position:

EV and the CCC contradict the ‘clear’ teaching of the Church. This teaching is that execution should in all times and places be the penal norm in cases of murder and only in cases of murder.
You push my careful comments over the edge with the way you use terms like “all” and “only.” I use those terms, but not that way.

What I have said is simply this: there are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution. This is a direct challenge to 2267 which - while not saying so directly - effectively states that no crime is serious enough for the criminal to merit death in expiation for that crime, and this seems to me to be a clear contradiction of Church teaching.

I don’t care to discuss which crimes (other than murder) might fall into this category as that is irrelevant; if murder merits death then 2267 is disproved and that for me is the only issue at hand. As far as “in all times”, I do believe that if the penalty was just in the past it is just today so if execution was necessary to expiate the sin of murder in the 1500s then it is equally as necessary now. The severity of the sin cannot change with time therefore the degree of punishment must be the same as well and the concern for defense is entirely irrelevant to that question.

Ender
 
Betterave:

Apparantly, you have never understood what Ender has articulated in nearly all of his posts, which is, it isn’t what Ender thinks, it is what Church teachings are and the differences between fallible prudential judgements and infallible Church teachings.

There are much better examples that what Aquinas taught. Let’s look at the Word of God and see what they may mean, in the context of the discussion.

God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4

Jesus: "So Pilate said to (Jesus), “Do you not speak to me? Do you not know that I have power to release you and I have power to crucify you?” Jesus answered (him), “You would have no power over me if it had not been given to you from above.” John 19:10-11

Jesus: “You have heard the ancients were told, ˜YOU SHALL NOT COMMIT MURDER” and “Whoever commits murder shall be liable to the court”. But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother shall be guilty before the court; and whoever shall say to his brother, “Raca”, shall be guilty before the supreme court and whoever shall say, “You fool”, shall be guilty enough to go into fiery hell." Matthew 5:17-22.

The Holy Spirit: God, through the power and justice of the Holy Spirit, executed both Ananias and his wife, Saphira. Their crime? Lying to the Holy Spirit - to God - through Peter. Acts 5:1-11.

2260: “For your lifeblood I will surely require a reckoning… Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed; for God made man in his own image.” “This teaching remains necessary for all time.”

If you are a religious person and believe in the Word of God, what do all of these mean to you?

Are these instructive to Christians?

How?
Bear in mind that as Catholics, we are to understand all Scripture, which is a Church document, in light of the teaching of the Church. In any case, the Law given specifically to Moses for the people of Israel does not extend to the Church. There is no question that murder is deserving of death, just as sin is deserving of Hell. Yet we do not expect that all will go to Hell. For justice is always balanced by mercy.
 
there are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution. This is a direct challenge to 2267 which - while not saying so directly - effectively states that no crime is serious enough for the criminal to merit death in expiation for that crime, and this seems to me to be a clear contradiction of Church teaching.
Ender, Betterave and pnewton:
  1. What does the term “Word of God” mean?
Word of God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4
  1. What do you and the Church think “most certainly” and “put to death” mean?
Word of God: “For your lifeblood I will surely require a reckoning… Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed; for God made man in his own image.”
  1. What do you and the Church think “surely” and “shall” mean?
2260: “This teaching remains necessary for all time.”
  1. What do you and the Church think the phrase “necessary for all time” means?
2265: “Legitimate defense can be not only a right but a grave duty for someone responsible for another’s life. Preserving the common good requires rendering the unjust aggressor unable to inflict harm.”
  1. Are both secular and religious governments responsible for “defense of society”?
  2. What do “requires” and “unable” mean?

Then there is the gravitas of completely variable secular security, which fails daily, resulting in many additional innocent deaths, negating the Word of God:

As in EV:

PJPII found that the only time executions can be justified is when they are required “to defend society” and that “as a result of steady improvements . . . in the penal system that such cases are very rare if not practically non existent.”
 
Sorry. Just now found this thread.

Didn’t read all of the previous posts.

One of the early posts [and the position of one of my priest-friends] revolves around simply locking someone up 24/7 in the event of a particularly heinous crime.

However, it is my understanding that you can only lock someone up 23/7.

Prisoners even under severe conditions do have access to prison guards and fellow prisoners during the hour per day of supervised free time.
 
Ender, Betterave and pnewton:
  1. What does the term “Word of God” mean?
Word of God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4
  1. What do you and the Church think “most certainly” and “put to death” mean?
There is no doubt that those words mean … just what they say. This isn’t rocket science. However the fact that the meaning is obvious does not also mean that the Church finds those words binding on us today. I am willing to cite scripture only if the Church cites it … which is why I focus so much on Gen 9:5-6, not just because the Church refers to it so frequently but because she has referred to it in specifically the context of capital punishment.
Word of God: “For your lifeblood I will surely require a reckoning… Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed; for God made man in his own image.”
  1. What do you and the Church think “surely” and “shall” mean?
Again, the meaning is obvious. The significance of the passage comes from the significance it is given by the Church, which was fully set forth in the Catechism of Trent.
2260: “This teaching remains necessary for all time.”
  1. What do you and the Church think the phrase “necessary for all time” means?
I find the inclusion of 2260 utterly baffling. It says essentially what was said in the Catechism of Trent and then affirms that it is not just true but necessary for all time. And then comes 2267 which suggests we should ignore what we just read. I have no explanation for this.
2265: “Legitimate defense can be not only a right but a grave duty for someone responsible for another’s life. Preserving the common good requires rendering the unjust aggressor unable to inflict harm.”
  1. Are both secular and religious governments responsible for “defense of society”?
  1. What do “requires” and “unable” mean?
Capital punishment cannot be justified by the defense of society criterion so I don’t give it much thought. The effectiveness of different approaches is not in any event a moral question - determining what works best calls for entirely prudential calculations.

Ender
 
It is not a question of whether 2267 is fallible or infallible but whether or not it is opinion. There is clearly opinion in that section - not doctrine - and therefore there is no moral obligation for us to accept it.
I think that has been accepted by all, at this point, as even Pope Benedict agrees.

It is a prudential judgement which was far from either prudent or accurate.

It is not infallible, therefore it is subject to being fallible and it is.
 
Ender, Betterave and pnewton:
  1. What does the term “Word of God” mean?
Word of God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4
Here is the whole passage:
Then Pharisees and scribes came to Jesus from Jerusalem and said,
2 “Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They do not wash (their) hands when they eat a meal.” 3 He said to them in reply, "And why do you break the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition? 4 For God said, ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother shall die.’
The Pharisees were questioning God on a specific point of the Mosaic Law. They were questioning this because Jesus and His followers (like us today) were not following all the Jewish traditions. Therefore, Jesus quoted from the Mosaic Law.

Jesus did not say to the Pharisees, “'Whoever curses father or mother shall die.” He said, “God said…” We know this. We too can read it when know that God said this in His commands to Moses for the Law of the people of Israel 3000 years ago. All Jesus was doing was showing that the Pharisees were not keeping the Law of Moses.

None of this matters. We are specifically told that Christians are not subject to the Law of Moses and the Curse thereof.

You have demonstated well the need of an authoritative interpreter of Sacred Scripture to prevent proof-texting.
 
None of this matters. We are specifically told that Christians are not subject to the Law of Moses and the Curse thereof. You have demonstated well the need of an authoritative interpreter of Sacred Scripture to prevent proof-texting.
I did read the whole text and looked up the interpretations of it.

Every interpretation of this passage (which I have found) is the opposite of what you say.

Jesus is reasserting what scripture says, as opposed to the wrongful interpretation of the Pharisees, which serve their own ends, not that of the Father,

If you wish to point to an interpretation which matches yours, please do so. I don’t think you will.

also see

Exodus 20:12
Exodus 21:17
Leviticus 20:9
Deuteronomy 5:16

Matthew 15:4

1 Then Pharisees and scribes came to Jesus from Jerusalem and said,
2
“Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? 2 They do not wash (their) hands when they eat a meal.”
3
He said to them in reply, “And why do you break the commandment of God 3 for the sake of your tradition?
4
For God said, ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother shall die.’
5
4 But you say, ‘Whoever says to father or mother, “Any support you might have had from me is dedicated to God,”
6
need not honor his father.’ You have nullified the word of God for the sake of your tradition.
7
Hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy about you when he said:
8
‘This people honors me with their lips, 5 but their hearts are far from me;
9
in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines human precepts.’”
 
  1. the fact that the meaning is obvious does not also mean that the Church finds those words binding on us today. I am willing to cite scripture only if the Church cites it … which is why I focus so much on Gen 9:5-6, not just because the Church refers to it so frequently but because she has referred to it in specifically the context of capital punishment.
  2. I find the inclusion of 2260 utterly baffling. It says essentially what was said in the Catechism of Trent and then affirms that it is not just true but necessary for all time. And then comes 2267 which suggests we should ignore what we just read. I have no explanation for this.
  3. Capital punishment cannot be justified by the defense of society criterion so I don’t give it much thought. The effectiveness of different approaches is not in any event a moral question - determining what works best calls for entirely prudential calculations.
  1. I agree, but it means what it says, based upon every analysis I have seen. But it is in the context of the Pharisees turning it into a human based command, interpreted to serves their ends, as opposed to Gods. It was used a condemnation of the Pharisees. Pretty common.
  2. This was kinda rhetorical. Folks say 2267 ONLY applies to the death penalty, while 2265-2266 regards self defense. Absurd of course, as we have 2260.
  3. Not just prudential calculations, but ones based upon human utilitarianism! It travels about as far from eternal truths as possible. What is so bad about 2258-2267 is that the reality is that only execution meets the requirements placed in 2265-2266 and execution in 2267 is the sanction which best meets the foundations for defense of society, even though 2267 makes executions “practically non existent”.
It is so bad from beginning to end.
 
If you wish to point to an interpretation which matches yours, please do so. I don’t think you will.
You are right. I won’t. You asked a question of me and I answered. You gave a general “every translation disagrees with” type of answer. I took you are your word as wanting an answer. I will not waste more time.

If you want to believe what “every translation” says and think Jesus was pushing for executing children, then believe what you already believe. I am a Catholic, though.
 
You are right. I won’t. You asked a question of me and I answered. You gave a general “every translation disagrees with” type of answer. I took you are your word as wanting an answer. I will not waste more time.

If you want to believe what “every translation” says and think Jesus was pushing for executing children, then believe what you already believe. I am a Catholic, though.
You accuse me of proof texting. That’s OK and a reasonable assumption.

You write: “If you want to believe what “every translation” says and think Jesus was pushing for executing children, then believe what you already believe. I am a Catholic, though.”

It is not what I want that matters, as the passage makes clear, it is what the passage says and means, inclusive of all the additional references I noted, all of which repeat that in the context of the Word of God. That was Jesus’ point.

Yes, I believe that what God says is what God says, over and over and in context and that Jesus was making that precise point - do not do what selfishly benefits oursleves, it is the Word of God.

pnewton, you were stating what you wanted it to say and then, turned it around as if it wasn’t the Word of God, but was only what I wanted.

I think all humans are subject to this type of self serving nonsense, even when they are unaware of it.

But, you need not be so blind in not seeing it in yourself and then wrongly projecting it onto others.

Jesus was the One who chose the passage: Word of God: ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and ‘Whoever curses father or mother must certainly be put to death.’ Matthew 15:4

It is a command. But, He was using a well known command by God, to show how the Pharisees had wrongly used that passage to serve themselves and not God.

Do you think Jesus would use an Old Testament command by God that was no longer in effect, to make the precise point that the Pharisees were perverting the Word of God with that command?

I think Jesus would only use a command that was still the Word of God. That was the exact point. Why would Jesus criticise the Pharisees for misusing a passage that Jesus no longer found licit. Wouldn’t He only use something He knew to be upheld, particularly in the context of the Pharisees misusing it? Jesus would only correct them if they were misusing a just and licit command.

Exodus 20:12
Exodus 21:17
Leviticus 20:9
Deuteronomy 5:16
 
You push my careful comments over the edge with the way you use terms like “all” and “only.” I use those terms, but not that way.

What I have said is simply this: there are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution. This is a direct challenge to 2267 which - while not saying so directly - effectively states that no crime is serious enough for the criminal to merit death in expiation for that crime, and this seems to me to be a clear contradiction of Church teaching.
A direct challenge to what 2267 does NOT directly say? Smells fishy to me! Does it ‘effectively state’ what you claim it does? Can you try to read what I write and see why it may not? I’m not asking you to change your mind, just make a sincere effort to try to see why.
I don’t care to discuss which crimes (other than murder) might fall into this category as that is irrelevant; if murder merits death then 2267 is disproved and that for me is the only issue at hand.
Ender: 2267 nowhere suggests that murder does not merit death! Please read it:

2267 *Assuming that the guilty party’s identity and responsibility have been fully determined, the traditional teaching of the Church does not exclude recourse to the death penalty, if this is the only possible way of effectively defending human lives against the unjust aggressor.

If, however, non-lethal means are sufficient to defend and protect people’s safety from the aggressor, authority will limit itself to such means, as these are more in keeping with the concrete conditions of the common good and are more in conformity to the dignity of the human person.

Today, in fact, as a consequence of the possibilities which the state has for effectively preventing crime, by rendering one who has committed an offense incapable of doing harm - without definitely taking away from him the possibility of redeeming himself - the cases in which the execution of the offender is an absolute necessity “are very rare, if not practically non-existent.”*

This passage does not even deny that the death penalty may be prudent in many cases. It only claims that it is very rarely an absolute necessity.
As far as “in all times”, I do believe that if the penalty was just in the past it is just today so if execution was necessary to expiate the sin of murder in the 1500s then it is equally as necessary now. The severity of the sin cannot change with time therefore the degree of punishment must be the same as well and the concern for defense is entirely irrelevant to that question.
Execution has never been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder. Do you not recognize that?? Your claim that the socially acceptable degree of punishment for a given crime can never change is patently false, as I have already explained. (You don’t want to advocate killing mother-and-father-cursers too now, do you? ;))

You claim I misrepresent your position. So please fix this up to accurately and concisely reflect your opinion:

EV and the CCC contradict the ‘clear’ teaching of the Church. This teaching is that execution should in all times and places be the penal norm in cases of murder and only in cases of murder.
 
A direct challenge to what 2267 does NOT directly say? Smells fishy to me! Does it ‘effectively state’ what you claim it does?
Ignore for the moment deterrence and rehabilitation (2267 does so this shouldn’t be a problem.) What is meant by “murder merits death”? Obviously in this context it can be merited only by protection or retribution but 2267 says that because of technological advances in protection the need for the use of the death penalty is rare or non-existent. That is, it ties the use of capital punishment solely to protection without any regard given to retribution, but if retribution is not to be considered then it cannot be said that the crime of murder merits death because protection is not directed at redressing the effects of past crimes but solely at preventing future ones.

There is of course one other explanation - which I in fact think is the correct one - and that is that JPII was not reassessing the nature of punishment in general or capital punishment in particular but was simply advising that, under current conditions, it does more harm than good and governments should eschew its use until conditions change.
This passage does not even deny that the death penalty may be prudent in many cases. It only claims that it is very rarely an absolute necessity.
This is true, and if you want to interpret 2267 as merely advisory then this would be a reasonable position, but in fact that passage is universally interpreted as being virtually an outright ban on capital punishment, not a warning of its unintended side effects in current societies.
Execution has never been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder. Do you not recognize that??
No, I don’t. In light of Gen 9:6 why would I accept your statement as other than an unsupportable - and incorrect - opinion?
Your claim that the socially acceptable degree of punishment for a given crime can never change is patently false, as I have already explained. (You don’t want to advocate killing mother-and-father-cursers too now, do you? ;))
Stop, please . I never made such a claim. You keep trying to generalize my comments which were specific to murder and make them universals. I haven’t talked about “crimes” in general; I am solely talking about the crime of murder. As I’ve said before, what other crimes may or may not deserve the death penalty is irrelevant to the question of whether or not murder in general merits death.
You claim I misrepresent your position. So please fix this up to accurately and concisely reflect your opinion:
“There are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution.”

Ender
 
Ignore for the moment deterrence and rehabilitation (2267 does so this shouldn’t be a problem.) What is meant by “murder merits death”? Obviously in this context it can be merited only by protection or retribution but 2267 says that because of technological advances in protection the need for the use of the death penalty is rare or non-existent. That is, it ties the use of capital punishment solely to protection without any regard given to retribution, but if retribution is not to be considered then it cannot be said that the crime of murder merits death because protection is not directed at redressing the effects of past crimes but solely at preventing future ones.
I think you’re making this too complicated. “Murder merits death” means that in strict justice those who intentionally and unjustly take the life of another deserve to be killed themselves. That’s it. 2267 simply states a position on the advisability of treating murderers according to their deserts. As you say:

There is of course one other explanation - which I in fact think is the correct one - and that is that JPII was not reassessing the nature of punishment in general or capital punishment in particular but was simply advising that, under current conditions, it does more harm than good and governments should eschew its use until conditions change.
This is true, and if you want to interpret 2267 as merely advisory then this would be a reasonable position, but in fact that passage is universally interpreted as being virtually an outright ban on capital punishment, not a warning of its unintended side effects in current societies.
What you say may be true to some extent, but I don’t see how the text itself supports that reading.
No, I don’t. In light of Gen 9:6 why would I accept your statement as other than an unsupportable - and incorrect - opinion?
How about, for example, in light of Gen 4:8-15:
8 And Cain said to Abel his brother: Let us go forth abroad. And when they were in the field, Cain rose up against his brother Abel, and slew him. 9 And the Lord said to Cain: Where is your brother Abel? And he answered: I know not: am I my brother’s keeper? 10 And he said to him: What have you done? The voice of your brother’s blood cries to me from the earth. 11 Now therefore cursed shall you be upon the earth, which has opened her mouth and received the blood of your brother at your hand. 12 When you shall till it, it shall not yield to you its fruit: a fugitive and a vagabond shall you be upon the earth. 13 And Cain said to the Lord: My iniquity is greater than that I may deserve pardon. 14 Behold you do cast me out this day from the face of the earth, and from your face I shall be hid, and I shall be a vagabond and a fugitive on the earth: every one therefore that finds me, shall kill me. 15 And the Lord said to him: No, it shall not so be: but whosoever shall kill Cain, shall be punished sevenfold.

Now do you want to claim that God did not want Cain’s act to be expiated here? But God does not delight in the perishing of the wicked. In any case, to claim that it is compatible with the Catholic faith to believe that no non-executed murderer can repent so as to expiate his crime is completely ridiculous. Why would you imply such a thing?
“There are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution.”
The problem with this statement is that it is too vaguely stated to speak to the specific issue here, which is about the appropriateness of specific penal sanctions for specific crimes at this general point in history. Simply put, 2267 plainly does not contradict your statement.
 
“Murder merits death” means that in strict justice those who intentionally and unjustly take the life of another deserve to be killed themselves. That’s it. 2267 simply states a position on the advisability of treating murderers according to their deserts.
Giving a person his due is the very definition of justice - and there is absolutely nothing whatever in 2267 that pertains to justice. I don’t understand how you can make such an allegation; 2267 is solely concerned with protection.
How about, for example, in light of Gen 4:8-15:
The difference between Gen 4:8-15 and Gen 9:5-6 is that the Church cites the latter as the basis of her position on capital punishment and (to my knowledge) has never cited the former. I have not chosen random passages and given my interpretation of them; I have cited passages the Church cites and simply repeated her interpretation.
Now do you want to claim that God did not want Cain’s act to be expiated here? But God does not delight in the perishing of the wicked. In any case, to claim that it is compatible with the Catholic faith to believe that no non-executed murderer can repent so as to expiate his crime is completely ridiculous. Why would you imply such a thing?
I haven’t implied it or anything like it. You constantly distort my comments by making them unconditionally universal when there is no justification for doing so. If I said that men are taller than women and you interpreted it to mean that all men are taller than all women it would be clear that your interpretation is nothing like my claim. This has been your approach. Deal with my comments without distorting them.
“There are crimes for which the only just punishment is execution.”
The problem with this statement is that it is too vaguely stated to speak to the specific issue here, which is about the appropriateness of specific penal sanctions for specific crimes at this general point in history. Simply put, 2267 plainly does not contradict your statement.
I disagree. 2267 directly contradicts this comment by claiming that it is security that determines the severity of the punishment. It is clear that, given perfect security, there would be no need for capital punishment (according to 2267) but my statement completely contradicts that position by claiming that the nature of certain crimes demands the death penalty as a condition of justice. Justice is independent of security and no condition of security can change the obligation to justice.

Ender
 
Giving a person his due is the very definition of justice - and there is absolutely nothing whatever in 2267 that pertains to justice. I don’t understand how you can make such an allegation; 2267 is solely concerned with protection.
:confused: What allegation are you referring to here? (And please don’t paraphrase.)
The difference between Gen 4:8-15 and Gen 9:5-6 is that the Church cites the latter as the basis of her position on capital punishment and (to my knowledge) has never cited the former. I have not chosen random passages and given my interpretation of them; I have cited passages the Church cites and simply repeated her interpretation.
But the Church does not give the vaguely explicit :o] interpretation of Gen 9:5-6 that you suggest it does. We can circle around on this forever if you want, but I’d much prefer that you stop begging the question.
I haven’t implied it or anything like it. You constantly distort my comments by making them unconditionally universal when there is no justification for doing so. If I said that men are taller than women and you interpreted it to mean that all men are taller than all women it would be clear that your interpretation is nothing like my claim. This has been your approach. Deal with my comments without distorting them.
Doh! Ender, do you understand the notion of logical implication? Let me explain:

B: Execution has never been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder. Do you not recognize that??

E: No, I don’t.

Therefore Ender claims that it is not true that execution has never been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder - and you certainly seem to think that it has always been true that execution has been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder , since you say:
“As far as “in all times”, I do believe that if the penalty was just in the past it is just today so if execution was necessary to expiate the sin of murder in the 1500s then it is equally as necessary now. The severity of the sin cannot change with time therefore the degree of punishment must be the same as well and the concern for defense is entirely irrelevant to that question.”
But this claim - it has always been true that execution has been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder - **logically entails **that *no non-executed murderer can repent so as to expiate his crime. *
🤷
I disagree. 2267 directly contradicts this comment by claiming that it is security that determines the severity of the punishment. It is clear that, given perfect security, there would be no need for capital punishment (according to 2267) but my statement completely contradicts that position by claiming that the nature of certain crimes demands the death penalty as a condition of justice. Justice is independent of security and no condition of security can change the obligation to justice.
Please restate this argument using *citations *from 2267 rather than just your interpretive paraphrases.
 
What allegation are you referring to here? (And please don’t paraphrase.)
“2267 simply states a position on the advisability of treating murderers according to their deserts.”

2267 makes no statement whatsoever regarding the treatment of murderers “according to their deserts.” It speaks solely in terms of protection; it ignores not only retribution but deterrence and rehabilitation as well.
But the Church does not give the vaguely explicit interpretation of Gen 9:5-6 that you suggest it does.
“Vaguely explicit”? You’re defending your position with oxymorons? In regard to those passages in Genesis, however, there is nothing vague about the way the Church refers to them.

Surely I will require your lifeblood; from every beast I will require it. … (Gen 9:5)

So much does God abominate homicide that He declares in Holy Writ that of the very beast of the field He will exact vengeance for the life of man, commanding the beast that injures man to be put to death. (Catechism of Trent)

Whoever sheds man’s blood, by man his blood shall be shed, for in the image of God He made man. (Gen 9:6)*

Nay, as it is forbidden in Genesis to take human life, because God created man to his own image and likeness, he who makes away with God’s image offers great injury to God, and almost seems to lay violent hands on God Himself!* (Catechism of Trent)

Those parts of the Catechism of Trent I cited were from the section that explicitly dealt with the use of capital punishment and that referred to its use as "an act of paramount obedience to this Commandment which prohibits murder." It isn’t credible to contend that the Church didn’'t mean what she plainly said.
But this claim - it has always been true that execution has been absolutely necessary to expiate the sin of murder - **logically entails **that no non-executed murderer can repent so as to expiate his crime.
Since I never made the claim, what it logically entails is irrelevant. Once again you attack what you incorrectly attribute to me rather than what I actually said.
Doh! Ender, do you understand the notion of logical implication?
Yes, quite well. Do you understand the notion of responding to my actual comments?

Ender
 
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